Western Coalfields Limited (WCL) Nursing Exam Answer Key

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Total Quiz Questions=70
Mark/Question= 5
Total Marks=350

1.A patient is to receive 2000 ml of IV fluid in 12 hours. The drop factor is 10gtt/ml. At how many drops per minute should the flow rate be set?
a)22 drops/min.
b)24 drops/min.
c)26 drops/min.
d)28 drops/min

2. Blood vessel which connects the artery and vein?
c)Capillary sinus

3. Color coding for nitrous oxide cylinder is?
b)black with white shoulder

4. Sharp instruments should not be sterilized by?
c)Hot air oven
d)Antiseptic solution

5. The technique of administering BCG vaccine is?
a)Z track injection
b)Intravenous injection
c)Subcutaneous injection
d)Intradermal injection

6. Tonicity of Ringer Lactate is?
d)None of these

7. Which of the following medication order is immediately and once only administered?
b)Stat Order
c)Single order
d)Standing order

8. During ABG analysis, blood is collected from?
d)Any site

9. Endoscopic catheters are sterilized by?
b)Hot air oven
c)2% gluteraldehyde

10. For nasogastric intubation the length of nasogastric tube should be measured from?
a)Nose to sternum
b)Nose to umbilicus
c)Nose to the tragus of the ear plus nose to the umbilicus
d)Nose to the tragus and tragus to the umbilicus.

11. When should rehabilitation start?
a)The day before discharge
b)When the patient desires
c)Upon admission
d)24 hours after discharge

12. The solution used to disinfect bed-linen of HIV positive patient is?
d)Sodium hypochlorite

13. For intra muscular injection the nurse should insert the needle into the muscle at an angle of?
a)15 degrees
b)30 degrees
c)45 degrees
d)90 degrees

14. The size of Intravenous cannula for neonate is?

15. Which one of the chroninc condition contraindicates the use of ice on sprained ankle?

16. Equipment used in examination of Ear is?

17. Mac Burney’s point is located in which of the following quadrant of abdomen?
a)Left upper
b)Left lower
c)Right upper
d)Right lower

18. Which of the following position would be the best aid breathing for a patient with acute pulmonary edema?
a)Lying flat in bed
b)Left side lying position
c)High fowler’s position
d)Semi fowler’s position

19. Bleeding from nose is known as?

20. Which of the following is used to assess the level of consciousness?
a)APGAR score
b)Braden scale
c)Glasgow scale
d)Snellen’s chart

21. A patient is given atropine sulphate as a premedication before surgery and develops tachycardia and dry mouth?
a)This is a drug allergy.
b)Needs higher dose of atropine sulphate
c)Normal side effects of atropine sulphate
d)patient is anxious

22. Chemical burn of eyes are treated with?
a)Local anaesthetics and anti bacterial drops
b)Hot compress applied at 15-minutes interval
c)Flushing of lids, conjuctiva and cornea with tap or sterile water
d)Cleansing the conjuctiva with small cotton tip applicator.

23. Glycosylated Hemoglobin (Hb A1C) test means glucose level?
a)Over 2 days
b)Over 14 days
c)Over 30 days
d)Over 90 days

24. Spinal anaesthesia is given at the level of?

25. Which is the preffered site for intra muscular injection in infants?
b)Rectus Femoris
c)Vastus lateralis
d)Ventro gluetal

26. A nurse is directed to administer hypotonic intravenous solution to a patient. She should use?
a)0.45% NaCl
b)0.9% NaCl
c)5% Dextrose
d)Dextrose with normal saline

27. The confirmatory diagnosis of Tuberculosis Chest?
a)Sputom culture
c)Tuberculin test
d)Saline test.

28. All of the following are organs of lymphatic system, Except?
d)None of these

29. A patient suspected of having pheochromocytoma complaining of palpation, sweating and headache. Which assessment is essential?
a)Pupillary reaction
b)Hand grip
c)Blood pressure
d)Blood glucose

30. In a patient with multiple small Renal calculi, the nurse will instruct the patient?
a)To strain all urine
b)To take plenty of fluids and ambualate
c)To remain on bed rest
d)Ask for medication

31. When should the nurse transport a multipara patient from labor room to delivery room?
a)When cervical dilatation is 8 cm
b)When cervical dilatation is 10 cm
c)When cervical dilatation is 9 cm
d)When patient feels urge to push

32. During which stage of labor would the nurse assess Crowning?
a)First stage
b)Second stage
c)Third stage
d)Fourth stage

33. A pregnant lady’s LMP is on 5th July, Her EDD should be?
a)2nd January
b)28th March
c)12th April
d)12th October

34. Which finding might be seen in a neonate suspected of having an infection?
a)Flushed cheeks
b)Increased temperature
c)Decreased temperature
d)Increased activity

35. A woman has given birth at 42 weeks of gestation. When assessing the neonate which physical finding is expected?
a)Sleepy lethargic baby
b)Lanugo covering body
c)Desquamation of epidermis
d)Vernix caseosa covering the body

36. Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test is seen in which type of abortion?

37. On which of the following areas a nurse would expect chloasma?
a)Breast, areola, Nipple
b)Chest, neck, arms, legs
c)Abdomen, breast, thighs
d)Cheeks, forehead, nose

38. Which hormone is administered for stimulation of uterine contraction?
b)Fetal cortisol

39. Greenish yellow colour of amniotic fluid indicates?
a)Fetal distress
b)Rh incombatibility
c)Post maturity

40. The placenta should be delivered within how many minutes after the delivery of the baby?
a)5 minutes
b)30 minutes
c)45 minutes
d)60 minutes

41. Which of these is not an investigation for dysphagia?
a)Barium swallow

42. A patient is admitted with Haematuria, Oliguria and Hypertension. The most likely diagnosis is?
a)Nephritic syndrome
b)Nephrotic syndrome

43. During CPR the correct hand placement over the chest for chest compressions?
a)Upper half of the sternum
b)Upper third of the sternum
c)Lower half of the sternum
d)Lower third of the sternum

44. Which of the following assessment is expected by the nurse for a patient with acute asthmatic attack?
a)Diffuse expiratory wheeze
b)Loose productive cough
c)No relief from inhalant
d)Fever with chills

45. The priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission of the patient with thrombotic cerebro vascular accident or CVA?
a)Pupil size and pupillary response
b)Cholesterol level
d)Bowel sounds

46. Using rule of NINE, percentage of the right lower limb burn is?

47. Patient undergone spinal surgery, the nurse should?
a)Observe bowel movements
b)Logroll the patient to prone position
c)Assess the patient feet for sensation and circulation
d)Encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids

48. The early indicator of hypoxia in the unconscious patient is?
b)Increased respiration

49. Positive diagnosis of HIV infection is made on the basis of which criteria?
a)History of high-risk sexual behaviour
b)Positive ELISA and Western Blot test
c)Identification of an associated opportunistic infection
d)Evidence of extreme weight loss and fever.

50. The best indication for fluid replacement in a patient with hypovolemic shock is?
a)Urine output
b)Respiratory rate
c)Diastolic blood pressure
d)Systolic blood pressure

51. Bottle fed babies are more prone than breast fed babies to?
a)Cough and cold

52. Which of the following is used to take cervical smear?
c)Ayre’s spatula

53. Post partum hemorrhage is loss of blood more than?
a)200 ml
b)300 ml
c)400 ml
d)500 ml

54. Ortho Toulidine test is used for detecting?

55. Primary Health care is?
a)Health for all
b)Health for those who are in need
c)Health for an area of 30000 population
d)Health for children attending primary school

56. Immediate complication of low birth weight baby is?
a)Intra uterine fetal death.
b)Perinatal asphyxia
c)Pulmonary hemorrhage
d)Sensorineural injury

57. Physiological jaundice in infants appears?
a)At birth
b)Within first week of birth
c)In second week of birth
d)None of these.

58. APGAR score is recorded at?
a)1 minute and 5 minutes after birth
b)5 minutes and 8 minutes after birth
c)2 minutes and 5 minutes after birth
d)5 minutes and 10 minutes after birth

59. The first thing the nurse should ensure when the baby’s head comes out is?
a)The cord is intact
b)No part of the cord is around the baby’s neck
c)The cord is still attached to the placenta
d)The cord is still pulsating

60. Sunken fontanelle is a sign of?
c)Down’s syndrome
d)Turner’s syndrome

61. According to the WHO, when should the mother start breast feeding the infant after a normal delivery?
a)Within 1 hour of the birth
b)Within 12 hours of the birth
c)Within a day after birth
d)After the infant’s condition stabilizes

62. How long after administration of Tuberculosis intradermal skin test, the results should be evaluated?
b)Within 24 hours
c)Between 48 to 72 hours
d)After 5 days

63. 6 months pregnant woman came to hospital for consultation. Which of the following is contraindicated?
a)Tetanus toxoid
b)Potassium Iodide 200 mg
c)Ferrous sulphate 200 mg
d)Retinol 2 Lakhs IU

64. JSY stands for?
a)Janani social yojana
b)Jan Suchir Yojana
c)Janani Suraksha Yojana
d)Jan Sulabhsouchalay Yojana

65. Case finding in RNTCP is based on?
a)Sputom culture
b)Sputom microscopy
c)X-ray chest
d)Montoux Test/PCR

66. While catheterising the bladder of a pregnant woman, the following facts about female urethra are true, EXCEPT?
a)It is about 1.5 inches in length
b)It is posterior to vaginal diaphragm
c)It pierces through urogenital diaphragm
d)It is straight and offers minor resistance

67. Disposal of expired and cytotoxic drugs is by?
a)Seperate landfill disposal
b)Municipal waste disposal
d)Chemical treatment

68. The vitamin – A supplement administered in prevention of nutritional blindness in children, program contains?
a)25000 IU/ml
b)2 Lakhs IU/ml
c)3 Lakhs IU/ml
d)5 Lakhs IU/ml

69. SAFE strategy is recommended for control of?
c)Diabetic retinopathy

70. In HIV, window period indicates a time period between?
a)Infection and onset of first symptom
b)Infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
c)Infection and maximum multiplication of the organism
d)None of these

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