AIIMS Rishikesh Staff Nurse’s Exam Previous Questions and Answers

AIIMS Rishikesh Staff Nurse’s Exam Previous Questions and Answers

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Total Quiz Questions=100
Mark/Question= 4
Total Marks=400


1.When obtained a radial pulse rate, the nurse
understand that it reflects the function of the?

Arteries
Veins
Blood
Heart

2. Which of the following types of insulin can be
given intravenously?

Regular
Intermediate acting
Long acting
None of the above

3.”Ptyaline” enzyme is present in?

Enzyme
Gastric juice
PANCREATIC JUICE
bile

4. Unpleasant awareness of one’s own heartbeat is called?

Palpitation
Dyspnoea
Bradycardia
TACHYCARDIA

5. What is the nurse doing when formulating a
nursing diagnosis?

Planning
.Assesing
Analysis
lmplementing.

6. In a primigravida, the cervical dilation occurs at
a maximum rate of?

2cm/h
3cm/h
5cm/h
4cm/h

7. In the right umbilical vein blood pressure is?

5-8
14-20
8-10
12-14

8. HIV Confirmation Test?

ELISA
Western bot
vidal
None of them

9. Which vaccine is contraindicated in
pregnancy?

Rubella
OPV
BCG
Hepatitis

10. The highest biological value of protein is seen in -?

Soyabean
Egg
Meat
Fish

11. Frozen DPT vaccine should be?

We can use
We have to discard it
We can use. After normal temperature of it
Immersed in hot water

12. Tetracycline is used for prophylaxis of?

Leptospirosis
Cholera
Meningitis
Brucellosis

13. World Tuberculosis Day is celebrated on?

24 march
7 april
12 may
1 december

14. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a measure of?

Intra Cranial Pressure (ICP)
Memory
Fluid volume
Level of Consciousness (LOC)

15. How much gap between Two doses of live
vaccine?

4 weeks
8 weeks
1 weeks
Any time

16. According to the RCH program first referral unit
is?

District hospital
PHC
CHC
Medical callege

17. The highest level of learning?

Concept Learning
Problem Solving
Chaining
Verbal association

18. Spalding signs -?

Abortion
IUD
Baby with carinostenosis
Spina bifida

19. The time period between HIV Infection and
detection antibody against it?

Incubation period
Active HIV
Window Period
1 & 3 both

20. B2 Transferrin is a specific test done in?

Lupus vulgaris
Allergic rhinitis
Rhinoscleroma
CSF rhinorrhoea

21. Scotch test done for?

Pinworm
Roundworm
Tapworm
Fungle infection.

22. Lapromine test?

Laprosy
TB
Asbestosis
Bysinosis

23. Bite cells are seen in……….?

Pyruvate Kinase deficiency
Immune haemolysis
G6PD deficiency
None of the above

24. A client with a fluid volume deficit is receiving
an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in water and
lactated Ringer’s solution at 125 ml/hour. Which
data collection finding indicates the need for
additional I.V. fluids?

Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Temperature of 99.6° F (37.6° C)
Neck vein distention
Dark amber urine

25. The procedure involves removal of the”head”
(wide part) of the pancreas, the duodenum, a
portion of the common bile duct, gallbladder, and
sometimes part of the stomach. And
anastomosis to jejunum?

Subtotal cholecystectomy
Birloth 2 procedures
Birloth 1procedures
Wipple procedures

26. A nurse is caring for patients in the oncology
unit. Which of the following is the most important
nursing action when caring for a neutropenic
patient?

Change the disposable mask immediately
after use.
Change gloves immediately after use.
Minimize patient contact.
Minimize conversation with the patient.

27. Which of the following is a dipeptidyl
peptidase-4 inhibitor?

Acarbose
Dapagliflozin
Metformin
Vildagliptin

28. K-Complex and Sleep Spindles are seen in?

NREM sleep Stage — I
NREM sleep Stage — III
NREM sleep Stage — II
NREM sleep Stage — IV

29. Orthopantomogram is taken to rule out the lesion
in?

Facial bone
Maxilla
Mandible
Skull

30. All are Beta-lactam antibiotics except?

Penicillin
Cephalosporin
Monobactum
Azithromycin

31. Pap smear screen example of?

Perimordial prevention
Primary prevention
Secondary prevention
Tertiary prevention

32. Most potent loop diuretics are…?

Furosemide
Torasemide
Amiloride
Acetazolamide

33. Influenza can be treated by….?

Antibiotics
Antiviral drugs
Both A & B
None of above

34. Japanese encephalitis is caused by….?

Virus
Bacteria
Protozoa
Flies

35. Anti-malaria Program celebrated in which
months?

April
June
July
may

36. Most suitable for cholera patients is…?

ORS
Rice water
Super ORS
Glucose solution

37. After vaccination BCG the montex test will be
positive?

24 hrs
72.hrs
After 3days
Its no show positive

38. Tetracycline should not be taken with…?

Milk
Antacids
Both A & B
Copper sulphate

39. “Passing Blood in Urine” is Called —?

Haematuria
Polyuria
Proteinuria
Uraemia

40. Which schizophrenia having a good prognosis?

Cataonic
Simple
Paranoid
Hebiphernic

41. Finger food” should be used which type of pt.?

Mainc
Depressed
bulmia nervosa
All of above

42. antenatal use lithium by mother can lead to
which type of malformations in the fetus?

NTD
Esophageal atresia
Cleft lip
CVS system

43. Administration of medication in
anesthesiology For ECT?

Succnylcholin – atropin – thiopentol –
methoxeol
Atropin _ thiopentol – methoxeol –
succnylcholin
Atropin – methoxeol-thiopentol-succnycholin
All are right

44. Impaired insight is evident in?

Schizophernia
Anxity neurosis
Post traumatic stress disorders
Psychosomatic disorders

45. Affect commonly seen in schizophrenia
patients?

Elation & Euphoria
Sedness & depression
Apathy & flatness
Anger & agressive

46. Shelf life (maximum storage time) of PRBC

(packed Rbc) CPDA 1 is-?

42 days

40 days
35 days
30 days

47. Following are the major psychiatric
emergencies, except?

Rape
Disaster
Suicide
Grief reaction

48. The most suitable position for giving an
enema is?

Left lateral
Right lateral
Dorsal recumbent
Lithotomy

49. Hypnosis is not effective in?

Hyseteria
Anxiety disorder
Eating disorder
Phobia

50. Progesterone is normally secreted in high
amount by?

Ovum
Corpus luteum
Pituitary gland
Thymus gland

51. Weight of the non–pregnant uterus is about?

30–40 gm
60–80 gm
80–100 gm
1 kg

52. Painless uterine contractions are?

Hegars sign
Braxton hicks contraction
Painful contraction
Oscianders sign

53. Which of the following is cardinal sign ?

Temperature
Look
Smell
None

54. What is the first response to the experience
of frustration ?

Persistence
Aggression
Intense effort
Use of diverse strategies

55. Fertilization takes place at?

Interstitial
Infundbulum
Ampulla
None of these

56. After the measurement of oral temperature
the thermometer must be cleaned from?

Front
Front to back
From stem to bulb of thermometer
None

57. Micro–organisms can thrive and reproduce is
known as?

Portal of entry
Portal of exit
Reservoir
Pathogenicity

58. Safe period in menstrual cycle is?

1–5 days
8–11 days
16–20 days
21–28 days

59. The ovary is present?

At birth
At puberty
After marriage
During pregnancy

60. Bile salts are produced from –?

Glycogen
Cholesterol
Amino Acid
None of these

61. The snow strom appearance of uterus in
USG indicates the presence of –?

Hydramnios
Ectopic pregnancy
Vesicular mole
Fibroid in pregnancy

62. Asymmetry of gluteal folds of skin?

Femur fracture
Osteomyelitis
Hip fracture
Hip Displacement

63. Uterus become pelvic organ after delivery –?

18-20 days
16-18 days
12-14 days
10-12 days

64. Aautism is diagnosed at –?

3rd year
5th year
School age
Infancy

65. An Important disease causing Renal
calculi is –
Hypertension
Renal tumors
Nephrotic syndrome
Hyperparathyroidism

  • 66. At term normal abdominal girth is -?

20 inches
30 inches
40 inches
50 inches

67. Support a diagnosis of cardiac tamponade?

Blood pressure 140/80
A deviated trachea
Absent breath sounds to the lower lobes
Pulse 40 with inspiration

68. Humoral immunity is transferred through ?

T cells
B cells
Alpha cells
Beta cells

69. Which of the following is not a component of
Bishop’s score ?


Cervical consistency
Position of head
Cervical dilatation
Station of head

70. A patient develops lesion in the caudate
nucleus. Which is most common clinical feature
indicating this lesion?

Chorea
Intentional tremor
Resting tremor
Hemiplagia

71. Patient who is a smoker & a diabetic, comes
with partial ptosis & miosis; this is due to?

Diabetic ophthalmoplegia
Horner’s syndrome
3rd cranial nerve palsy
Autonomic neuropathy

72. The diagnostic investigation of the Guillain
Barre Syndrome is?

C.T. Scan
M.R.I
X -ray spine
Conduction velocity testing

73. A patient is diagnosed as having Horner’s
syndrome. Which of the following can be the
feature of syndrome?

Pale-dry face
Loss of sensation of side of face
lncreased sweating
Dropping of eyelid

74. Regarding C.S.F is …….?

Pressure is 20-40 mm of H20
Increased pressure in jugular vein obstruction
Main source of nutrition to cell lining
Present in subarachnoid space only

75. Hypophysis cerebri is posterosuperiorly
related with?

Sphenoid sinus
Ethmoid sinus
Frontal sinus
Maxillary sinus

76. A 3 yr old child presents with history of fever,
neck stiffness of sudden onset, there is flaccid
paralysis of upper limb, SOMI are positive, child
is uncircumcised, child dies suddenly. What is
the most appropriate site of specimen?

Blood
CSF
Stool
Urine

77. A child of 05 years is suffering from bacterial
meningitis with a total leucocyte count of 1200
per cmm in CSF. The most likely bacteria in this
case would be?

Escherichia coli
H. Nfluenzae
Meningococci
Staphylococci

78. Laboratory investigation of CSF from an adult
male shows protein 400 mgm %, glucose 40
mgm %, total leucocyte count of 450 per cmm
(mostly lymphocytes). The most likely diagnosis
in this case would be?

Encephalitis
Meningitis due to cryptococcus
Septic meningitis
Tuberculous meningitis

79. The most common bacterial agent to cause
meningitis, secondary to pyogenic lung abscess
is?

Escherichia coli
Haemophilus influenzae
Pneumococci
Staphylocococci

80. A 45 year old woman presents with 6 month
history of increasing weakness and burning pain
over left leg. Examination reveals wasting of left
quadriceps with loss of left knee jerk but a brisk
ankle jerk and extensor plantar response on the
left. Vibration and position senses are impaired in
left leg while there is patchy loss of touch, pain
and temperature sensations of right leg. The lady
is suffering from?

Brown Sequard syndrome
Friedrich’s ataxia
Millard gubler syndrome
Multiple sclerosis

81. A new born baby develops fever, fits, neck
rigidity and head retraction. The CSF
examination show counts mostly neutrophils. The
most likely organism present in CSF culture
would be?

Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria meningitidis
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococus agalactiae

82. Secondary mediatiors of shock include?

Myocardial factor
Hypotension
Moderate degree of anemia
Normoglycemia

83. The known etiology of cerebral malaria is?

P. Falciparum
P. Malarae
P.ovale
P. Ovale and p. Vivax

84. When papilloedema due to brain tumor
occurs in the absence of any localizing signs, the
most likely tumour site will be?

Occipital lobe
Parietal lobe
Pituitary gland
Third ventricle

85. The following are correct except?

Carotid aneurysm produces lateral chiasma
syndrome
Cavernous sinus thrombosis produces
ipsilateral blindness
Craniopharyngioma produces bitemporal
homonymous hemianopia
Pituitary tumor produces asymmetric
bitemporal hemianopia

86. A 63 year old man has abnormal pupils. They
are small and some what irregular. The response
to accommodation is preserved but there is no
light reflex. The likely causes include all of the
following except?

Diabetes mellitus
Guillain barre syndrome
Hypertrophic polyneuritis
Neoplastic lesion of midbrain

87. A patient with previous spells of diplopia and
dizziness becomes acutely comatose, The most
likely cause is?

Basilar artery thrombosis
Carotid occlusion
Cerebellar haemorrhage
Pontine haernorrhaqe

88. Sharp, fast pain is mediated by which of
following fiber?

C-fiber
A-delta
Beta
Theta

89. Synapses are absent in?

Dorsal horn of spinal cord
Dorsal root ganglion
Lateral horn of spinal cord
Sympathetic chain ganglion

90. A 20 yr old male during a test for driving was
unable to distinguish between red and green,
most likely defect is?

Deutranopia
Protanopia
Protanopia
Tritanopia

91. World Breast Feeding week is celebrated in
the first week of?

January
August
March
December

92. WHO recently declared India to be free of
which communicable disease?

Chicken pox
Polio myelitis
Measles
Tetanus

93. Significant proteinuria in pregnancy?

≥150 mg/24 hrs
≥220 mg/24 hrs
≥250 mg/24 hrs
≥300 mg/24 hrs

94. Hospital acquired infection is known as?

Nosocomial infection
Opportunistic infection
Contamination
All of above

95. What is the primary action of insulin in the
body?

Stimulates the pancreatic beta cells
Aids in the process of gluconeogenesis
Enhances the transport of glucose across cell
walls
Decreases the intestinal absorption of glucose

96. Which vaccine is given earliest?

Hepatitis
BCG
Measles
DPT

97. The pentavalent vaccine prevents?

Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B,
Haemophilus influenza B
Diphtheria, Pertussis, Typhoid, Hepatitis B,
Tetanus
Diphtheria, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, Typhoid,
Haemophilus influenza B
Diphtheria, Pertussis, Typhoid, Hepatits B,
Tetanus

98. Nursing is the diagnosis and treatment of
human responses to health and illness. This
definition was given by?

American Nurses Association (AN, 1995
International Council of Nurses
Indian Nursing Council, 1948
Florence Nightingale,

99. The term ‘nursing process’ was first used by?

Lydia Hall
Virginia Henderson
Dorothea Orem
Florence Nightingale

100. The Govt. of India recommended dosage of
elemental iron during pregnancy?

50 mg/day
100 mg/day
160 mG/day
200 mg/day

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