PGIMER Staff Nurse Exam 2020 Provisional Answer Key

PGIMER Staff Nurse Exam 2020 Provisional Answer Key

pgimer staff nurse exam answer key

PGIMER Staff Nurse Exam Answer Key is provisional, the original answer key is not yet published. Please visit PGIMER Chandigarh official website

1. A young adult who was hit by a car was fortunate because the level of injury did not interrupt his respiratory function. The cord segment involved with maintaining respiratory function is?

a. Thoracic level 5 and 6

b. Thoracic level 2 and 3

c. Cervical level 7 and 8

d. Cervical level 3 and 4

The correct answer is Cervical level 3 and 4

Cervical nerves 3 and 4 supplying impulses to the diaphragm

2. The first person becoming sick in an epidemic is called?

a. Primary case

b. Secondary case

c. Contact case

d. Index case

The correct answer is Primary case

Index case: Person that come into the attention of public health authorities or epidemiologist

Primary case: The person who acquires the disease from an exposure

Secondary case: Person who acquires the disease from exposure to a primary case

3. A patient was in an automobile accident and sustained a head injury. Following admission to the hospital, a diagnosis of increasing ICP was made. The nursing intervention appropriate in the care of this patient is to?

a. Teach controlled coughing and deep breathing

b. Provide a quiet and brightly calm environment

c. Elevating the head of bed 15 to 30 degrees

d. Encouraging the intake of clear fluid

The correct answer is Elevating the head of bed 15 to 30 degrees

After the head injury always keeps in mind that the patient must be in low Fowler’s position or 30-degree head end elevation for the prevention of brain herniation. After craniotomy, also the patient should be in low Fowler’s position to reduce ICP by the easy flow of venous and CSF drainage from the brain.

4. The patient has the diagnosis of ventricular failure and a high pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or PCWP. The physician order dopamine to improve ventricular function. The nurse will know the medication is working if the patient’s?

a. Blood pressure raises

b. Blood pressure decreases

c. Cardiac index falls

d. PCWP raise

The correct answer is blood pressure raises

Dopamine is a positive inotropic drug that facilitates contraction of cardiac muscles

5. A 28-year-old patient admitted to the hospital for a suspected brain tumor. While assessing the patient, the nurse would keep in mind that the most reliable index of cerebral status is?

a. Pupil response

b. Deep tendon reflexes

c. Muscles strength

d. Level of consciousness

The correct answer is the level of consciousness

Level of consciousness is the most reliable indicator of neurological assessment

6. The physician ordered a 24 hours urine specimen after explaining the procedure to the patient, the nurse collects the first specimen. This specimen is then?

a. Discarded then the collection begins

b. Save as part of the 24 hours collection

c. Tested, then discarded

d. Placed in a separate container and later added to the collection

The correct answer is discarded then the collection begins

For 24 hours urine specimens, first voided urine should be discarded and then collect urine for the test.

7. Pain felt in calf muscles when the foot is dorsiflexed with the leg extended at the knee level is called?

a. Kerning sign

b. Spalding sign

c. Homan sign

d. Goodell’s sign

The correct answer is Homan sign

Homan sign is positive in deep vein thrombosis

8. To evaluate the patient’s condition following cardiac catheterization, the nurse will palpate the pulse?

a. In all extremities

b. At the insertion site

c. Distal to the catheter insertion

d. Above the catheter insertion

The correct answer is distal to the catheter insertion

After a cardiac catheter, the distal pulse of the catheter insertion site should be checked to assess the peripheral circulation

9. A female patient has a laparoscopic cholecystectomy this morning. She is now complaining of right shoulder pain. The nurse would explain to the patient what the symptom is?

a. Common following this operation

b. Unusual and should be reported to the doctor

c. Indicated the need to use incentive spirometer

d. Expected after the general anesthesia

The correct answer is common following this operation

10. Influenza precaution?
a. Isolate the patient
b. Frequently handwashing.
c.Wearing mask
d. Wearing gloves
The Correct Answer is to isolate the patient

PGIMER Staff Nurse Exam 2020 Provisional Answer Key

11. What kind of induration is seen in person with no risk factor of tuberculosis?
a. >5mm
b. >15mm
c. >10mm
d. None of them

The correct answer is greater than 15 mm

12. Which part of the brain affected in spatial disorientation?
a. Parietal
b. Frontal
c. Temporal
d. Occipital

The correct answer is Temporal

Spatial disorientation means the inability to determine one’s position, location, and motion related to the environment. The condition is mostly affected by aircraft pilots

13. Full form of UNICEF?

a. United nations integrated children’s education fund
b. United nations international children emergency fund
c. United nations integrated children emergency fund
d. None of these

The correct answer is the United Nations International Children Emergency Fund

14. A child with marasmus having diarrhea and no appetite. what will be preferred food that gives energy to the brain?

a. Ketone bodies
b. Glucose
c. Fatty food
d Cold chips

The correct answer is glucose

Quick energy sources of the body are glucose, which is monocarbohydrate

15. Duke’s major and minor criteria are used for what?

a. Rheumatic heart disease

b. Infective endocarditis

c. Pleurisy

d. Cardiac tamponade

The correct answer is infective endocarditis

The Duke criteria are a set of clinical criteria set forward for the diagnosis of infective endocarditis

For diagnosis the requirement is: 

  • 2 major and 1 minor criteria or
  • 1 major and 3 minor criteria or
  • 5 minor criteria

16. The position is given after left pneumonectomy?

a. High fowlers

b. Supine

c. Operated and back

d. Unoperated and back

The correct answer is operated and back

After pneumonectomy position of the patient should be given operated side and backside for the purpose of remaining lung expansion, drainage and mediastinal shifting of the remaining lung

17. The lymphatic fluid aspirated from pleural space called?

a. Pneumothorax

b. Chylothorax

c. Hemothorax

d. Pleurisy

The correct answer is chylothorax

Pneumothorax: Accumulation of air in pleural space

Hemothorax: Accumulation of blood in pleural space

Hydrothorax: Accumulation of water in pleural space

18. Normal CVP finding is between?

a. 5 and 10 cm

b. 0 and 20 cm

c. 5 and 15 cm

d. 5 and 20 cm

The correct answer is 5 to 10 cm of H2O or 2 to 6 mm of Hg

If CVP is less than 5 cm H2O it indicates that hypovolemia and requires more fluid intake. If CVP is more than 10 cm of H2O, it indicates hypervolemia and needs to reduce fluid intake or restrict fluids

19. Pain at lower back and knees, when flexed of the knee, is called?

a. Kerning sign

b. Chadwick sign

c. Hegar sign

d. Brudzinski sign

The correct answer is kerning sign

20. Which of the following is not a manifestation of interstitial cystitis?

a. Frequency

b. Urgency

c. Incontinence

d. Pelvis pain

The correct answer is incontinence

Interstitial cystitis is a chronic condition, cardinal features are pelvic pain, urinary urgency, and frequency

PGIMER Staff Nurse Exam 2020 Provisional Answer Key

21. Rejection after renal transplant within minutes and hours?

a. Chronic rejection

b. Acute rejection

c. Hyperacute rejection

d. Subacute rejection

The correct answer is a hyperacute rejection

Hyperacute rejection: Occurs withing 1 – 24 of transplantation, caused by pre-existing host serum antibodies specific for the antigen of the graft

Acute Rejection: Begin in the 1st few weeks after transplantation due to TH activation and proliferation

Chronic Rejection: Occurs from month to year after transplant

22. The antidote of heparin is?

a. Warfarin

b. Vitamin K

c. Protamine Sulphate

d. Acetylcysteine

The correct answer is protamine sulfate

The antidote of warfarin is vitamin K

The antidote of paracetamol is acetylcysteine

23. A patient suffering from liver cirrhosis is admitted to the ward. Which of the following represents that hepatic encephalopathy is observable in that patient?

a. Pulmonary embolism

b. Chest tightness

c. Asterixis

d. Shuffling gait

The correct answer is asterixis

24. While administering ear drops in a 2-year-old baby. Which of the following is done by the nurse while giving ear drops, the pinna will be kept?

a. Upward and forward

b. Normal position

c. Back and downward

d. Forward and downward

The correct answer is back and downward

When administering ear drops to children above 3 years and adult clients, the pinna of the ear should be pulled upward and backward. But if you are putting ear drops to children below 3 years and infants, the pinna should be pulled back and downward, that is the direction of the ear canal

25. Sign of digoxin toxicity?

a. Constipation

b. headache

c. The blurring of vision and diplopia

d. diarrhea

The correct answer is blurring of vision and diplopia

The therapeutic range of digoxin is 0.5 to 2 ng/ml

Digoxin toxicity consider if digoxin serum level exceeds 2 ng/ml

26. All of the following are the causes of polyuria except?

a. Diabetes insipidus

b. Diabetes mellitus

c. Mannitol

d. Sympathetic stimulation

The correct answer is sympathetic stimulation

When the sympathetic nervous system is active, it causes the bladder to increase its capacity without increasing detrusor muscles pressure and stimulates the internal urinary sphincter to remain tightly closed

27. Early signs of hypoglycemia are which of the following?

a. Weight gain, constipation, diarrhea

b. Shakiness, sweating, nervousness, dizziness

c. Polyuria, headache, diplopia

d. None of them

The correct answer is shakiness, sweating, nervousness, dizziness.

Early signs may include numbness, muscle spasms, seizures, confusion, shakiness.

28. A patient is receiving histamine receptor antagonist for peptic ulcers and ask the nurse about the mode of action of histamine receptor antagonist. The best response by the nurse is?

a. Decreases activity of acetylcholine

b. Decreases gastric acid secretions

c. Pain reduction

d. Increases peristalsis

The correct answer is decreased gastric acid secretions

29. The best measurement done by anthropometric is?

a. Weight and height

b. Blood pressure

c. Blood glucose sugar

d. Lipid studies

The correct answer is weight and height

30. Which of the following is not an internationally noticeable disease?

a. Plague

b. Cholera

c. Chickenpox

d. Yellow fever

The correct answer is chickenpox

A notifiable disease is any disease that is required by law t be reported to government authorities.

PGIMER Staff Nurse Exam 2020 Provisional Answer Key

31. Which of the following are the earliest symptoms of Vitamin A deficiency in young children?

a. Keratomalacia

b. Bitot spot

c. night blindness

d. Diplopia

The correct answer is night blindness

32. The best indicator of work done by dopamine is?

a. Decrease blood pressure

b. Reducing peristalsis

c. Increases blood pressure

d. None of them

The correct answer is to increase blood pressure

33. The connection between the right and the left hemisphere is called?

a. Corpus callosum

b. Pons

c. Cerebellum

d. Gyri

The correct answer is corpus callosum

34. A patient with myasthenia gravis have an episode of epistaxis, the most important nursing priority in this patient is?

a. ineffective breathing pattern

b. ineffective nutritional status

c. Airway clearance

d. Poor tissue perfusion

The correct answer is an airway clearance

35. A patient is taking disulfiram therapy and ingested alcohol, which of the following signs are visible with the reaction that will happen?

a. Diarrhea, vomiting, weight loose

b. Nausea, face and neck flushing, tachycardia and low BP

c. Headache, diplopia

d. None of these

The correct answer is Nausea, face and neck flushing, tachycardia and low BP

36. Which of the following is the cause of atrophic vaginitis?

a. Estrogen

b. Progesterone

c. Gonadotrophin

d. Prolactin

The correct answer is estrogen

37. The term which describes no harm to the patient is?

a. Fidelity

b. Nonmaleficence

c. Beneficence

d. Veracity

The correct answer is nonmaleficence

Fidelity: Faithfulness toward the patients

Beneficence: Promotion of good towards the patients

Veracity: Truthfulness to the patients

38. Elevated CA 125 is seen is?

a. Cancer of bladder

b. Cancer of Ovary

c. Cancer of cervix

d. cancer of pancreas

The correct answer is the cancer of the cervix

39. A patient shows a sign of “hotspots” on his leg cast. Which of the following indicator recognizes by the nursing officer?

a. Sign of infection

b. Tightness of cast

c. Poor perfusion from cast

d. Limited movement

The correct answer is a sign of infection

40. A diet that is indicated for a patient receiving anticoagulant warfarin therapy is?

a. Intake of high potassium diet

b. Intake of high vitamin K diet

c. High carbohydrates and proteins

d. Low vitamin K diet

The correct answer is low vitamin A diet

41. Which of the following is related to health in a sustainable development goal?

a. SDG 1

b. SDG 3

c. SDG 9

d. SDG 10

The correct answer is SDG 3

42. Pursed lip breathing assist in?

a. Expansion of diaphragm

b. Increases breathing power

c. Increase the elimination of carbon dioxide

d. Increases inhalation of oxygen

The correct answer is to increase the elimination of carbon dioxide

43. Reference protein found in?

a. Egg

b. Milk

c. Mutton

d. Pea

The correct answer is Egg

44. Best way of healing of fracture is?

a. immobilization and proper alignment

b. Function in all daily activities

c. Do heavy lifting exercises

d. None of these

The correct answer is immobilization and proper alignment