SCTIMST Staff Nurse Previous Question Paper 2015

SCTIMST Staff Nurse Previous Question Paper 2015

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Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute of Medical Sciences and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram, Conducted Staff Nurse Exam in 2015. The solved questions and answers given here.

Total Quiz Questions=80
Mark/Question= 5
Total Marks=400



1 The hierarchy of human needs, where nurses prioritize basic physiological needs
is identified by:
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Kubler-Ross
c. Erik Erikson
d. Abraham Maslow.

2. The most reliable index of the cerebral status is:
a. Pupillary responses
b. Response to pain
c. Level of consciousness
d. Deep tendon reflexes.

3. Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K

4. You have a stock solution of 20%. To prepare one litre of 5% solution, how much diluent
will be added?
a. 100ml
b. 150mI
c. 200mI
d. 250mI.

5. The antidote to Heparin is:
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Vitamin K
c. Protamine sulfate
d. Atropine

6. For a comatose patient, the highest priority nursing diagnosis is:
a. Altered sensorium
b. Ineffective airway clearance.
c. Impaired physical mobility
d. Altered nutrition

7. In a patient with decorticate posturing, the nurse observes:
a. Flexion of elbows, extension of knees, and plantar flexion of feet
b. Flexion of upper and lower extremities
c. Extension of upper and lower extremities
d. Extension of elbows and knees and flexion of the wrist.

8. The normal central venous pressure (CVP) reading is between:
a. 0-5 cms
b. 5-10 cms
c. 10-15 cms
d. 15-20 cms

9. A patient with congestive cardiac failure experiences dyspnoea due to:
a. Accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces and alveoli of lungs
b. Bronchial secretions and spasm
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Pulmonary congestion resulting from cardiomegaly

10. A client on anticoagulant therapy is specifically monitored for:
a. Nausea
b. Chest pain
c. Insomnia
d. Haematuria

11. The nurse who observes projectile vomiting in a newborn suspects,
a. Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
b. Hirschprung’s disease
c. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
d. Congenital heart disease

12. A person with Diabetes mellitus is asking you the calories obtained from one teaspoon
of sugar. Your answer would be:
a. 5
b. 15
c. 20
d. 60

13. Which of the following food items are rich sources of vitamin A?
a. Green leafy vegetables and yellow fruits
c. Green gram and Dhal
b. Rice and potatoes
d. Milk and milk products

14. The urinary output of a client for 24 hours was 350 ml. The nurse has documented
the observation as:
a. Anuria
b. Polyuria
c. Dysuria
d. Oliguria

15. Which one of the following terms indicates an increase in the size of cells without increase in
the number of cells:
a. Hyperplasia
b. Hypertrophy
c. Dysplasia
d. Atrophy

16. When the client can breathe only in an upright position, it is termed as:
a. Orthopnoea
b. Dyspnoea
c. Tachypnoea
d. Apnoea

17. A client with hypoventilation is prone to develop:
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis

18. A client after pneumonectomy will be positioned on:
a. Supine position only
b. Supine and either sides
c. Operated side or back
d. Un-operated side or back

19. When periods of hyperpnoea alternates with periods of apnoea, the breathing pattern is termed:
a. Kussmaul’s respiration
b. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
c. Bradypnoea
d. Tachypnoea

20. A client who is sent home with an ileostomy requires dietary supplementation with:
a. Fibre
b. Sodium
c. Potassium
d. Vitamin Bl2

21. A client after liver biopsy should be vigilantly observed for:
a. Haemorrhage
b. Dyspnoea
c. Vomiting
d. Pain

22. The rationale for using normal saline to start blood transfusion is:
a. Normal saline is commonly used as a primary IV Solution
b. It is compatible with blood
c. Normal saline prevents haemolysis
d. Dextrose de-activates blood

23. In case of blood transfusion reaction, the first nursing intervention would be:
a. Notify the physician
b. Stop transfusion
c. Slow down the transfusion
d. Administer antihistamines

24. The priority nursing assessment in an immediate post-anaesthesia client is to:
a. Monitor vital signs
b. Check gag reflex
c. Assess pain
d. Assess airway patency

25: Alkylating chemotherapeutic agents used in cancer treatment acts by:
a. Damaging DNA in the cell nucleus
b. Destroying messenger R.NA
c. Creating a hormonal imbalance
d. Interrupting cellular metabolism

26. The most informative measurement for determining cardiogenic shock is:
a. Cardiac output
b. Arterial blood pressure
c. Oxygen saturation
d. Central Venous Pressure

27. One of the important signs that nurse would observe in hypovolemic shock is:
a. Hypotension
b. Tachypnea
c. Oliguria
d. Cyanosis

28. The normal PH of blood is:
a. < 7
b. 7 – 7.35
c. 7.35 – 7.45
d. < 7.45

29. Normal serum potassium is:
a. 2.3-3.5 mEq/L
b. 3.5-5.3 mEq/L
c. 5.32-7.5 mEq/L
d. 7.5-8.9 mEq/L

30. Normal serum creatinine is:
a. 0.5 -1.5 mg/dL
b. 1.5-3 mg/dL
c. 3-5 mg/dl.
d. 5-8 mg/dL

31. Normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in male is:
a. 95 rnL/mt
b. 110 rnL/mt
c. 125 rnL/mt
d. 150 rnL/mt

32. Normal serum albumin is:
a. 1.5 – 3 mg/100mL
b. 3.5 – 5 mg/100mL
c. 5 – 7.5 mg/100mL
d. 7 – 10 mg/l00mL

33. A vaginal examination is indicated, when membranes rupture spontaneously in a pregnant
woman with polyhydramnios to:
a. Assess foetal maturity
b. Note the position of the foetus
c. Determine stage of labour
d. Rule out cord prolapse

34. Which one of the following is a major cause for atonic postpartum haemorrhage?
a. Infection
b. Retained products
c. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
d. Jaundice

35. Normal respiratory rate in a newborn is
a. < 20 / mt
b. 20-40 / mt
c. 40-60 / mt
d. > 60/mt

36. The most accurate area to check the pulse rate in an infant is
a. Carotid artery
b. Brachial artery
c. Temporal Artery
d. Apex of the heart

37. A staff nurse, who was called by the Nursing Superintendent for a feed back on poor
performance, spent the remaining time of the shift, blaming her supervisor and colleagues.
The mental mechanism used by her is:
a. Projection
b. Reaction formation
c. Rationalization
d. Compensation

38. Which one of the following drugs is a mood stabilizer?
a. Librium
b. Lithium Carbonate
c. Tofranil
d. Haloperidol

39. In the ECG recording of a client, the nurse observes tall peaked T waves, flat P waves,
widened QRS complex and prolonged PR interval. The nurse identifies:
a. Hypokalaemia
b. Hyperkalaemia
c. Hypocalcaemia
d. Hypercalcaemia

40. The physician has prescribed 20 mEq of KCl to a client. The available KCI is 10 mEq/5 ml. The nurse will administer:
a. 5 ml
b. 7.5 ml
c. 10 ml
d. l0.5 ml.

41. Which one of the following indicates in teasing intracranial pressure following head injury?
a. Restlessness
b. Decreased pulse rate
c. Increasing blood pressure
d. Widening pulse pressure

42. Which one of the following conditions is a common cause of cardiogenic shock?
a. Electrolve imbalance
b. Fluid overload
c. Left ventricular failure
d. Hypovolaemia

43. Which one of the following is the drug of choice in ventricular arrhythmias?
a. Inderal
b. Digoxin
c. Sorbitrate
d. Lidocaine

44. Cyanotic spell is a feature of:
a. TOF
b. VSD
c. PDA
d. ASD

45. An infant experiencing hypercyanotic spells is placed in:
a. High fowler’s position
b. Knee-chest position
c. Prone position
d. Supine position

46. When a haemophilic carrier female marries a normal male, the chance of their daughter
becoming a carrier is:
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%

47. A nurse observes koplik’s spots on oral examination of a child with fever. This is indicative of:
a. Measles
b. Diphtheria
c. Dengue fever
d. Whooping cough

48. Census is taken once in every:
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
d. 20 years

49. The nurse is teaching a client about iron rich food to be consumed, to correct anaemia. Which one of the following vitamins has to be supplemented to increase iron absorption?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin B6
d. Folic acid.

50. In which one of the following leadership styles, the leader values the individual characteristics
and abilities of each subordinate?
a. Autocratic
b. Democratic
c. Laissez faire
d. Bureaucratic

51. Which one of the following is known as the pacemaker of the heart?
a. SA node
b. AV node
c. Bundle of His
d. Purkinje fibres

52. The left atrium and the lateral and posterior surfaces of the left ventricle is supplied by the:
a. Left anterior descending coronary artery
b. The left coronary artery
c. The right coronary artery
d. The circumflex artery.

53. Which one of the following is a potassium sparing diuretic?
a. Spironolactone
b. Mannitol
c. Furosemide
d. Chlorothiazide

54. Tab Digoxin is withheld if the pulse rate is less than:
a. 40/mt
b. 50/mt
c. 60/mt
d. 70/mt.

55. A nurse who observes absence of p waves and fibrillating waves before each QRS complex, on the cardiac monitor will interpret the client’s cardiac rhythm as:
a. Sinus tachycardia
b. Ventricular fibrillation,
c. Ventricular tachycardia
d. Atrial fibrillation

56. The most important risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is:
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Phlebitis,
d. Bleeding

57. Which one of the following interventions should be avoided by the nurse, while caring a client
with deep vein thrombosis?
a. Providing bedrest
b. Elevation of affected extremity
c. Massaging the extremity
d. Administering analgesics.

58. The normal volume of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is:
a. 25-50 ml
b. 50 -100 ml
c. 125-150 ml
d. 150 – 200 ml

59. Which of the following neurotransmitter is deficient in Myasthenia gravis?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Dopamine
c. Serotonin
d. Nor-epinephrine

60. In paraplegia, paralysis involves:
a. All four extremities
b. Only lower extremities
c. One side of the body
d. Only upper extremities.

61. In the assessment of a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome, the nurse gives high priority to:
a. Pain
b. Level of consciousness
c. Motor functions
d. Respiratory status

62. Which one of the following is an anticonvulsant drug?
a. Bromocriptine
b. Largactil
c. Phenytoin
d. Chlordiazepoxide

63. Perception in the absence of external stimuli is termed as:
a. delusion
b. Illusion
C.Phobia
d. Hallucination

64. One tablespoon is equal to ——- ml.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 30

65. The physician prescribed 1500ml Ringer Lactate to be infused in 12 hours (lml=15drops).
The drop rate would be:
a. 20 drops/mt
b. 25 drops/mt
c. 31 drops/mt
d. 35 drops/mt

66. The physician prescribed Phenytoin 0.2g orally, twice daily. The medicine is available as 100mg capsule. How many capsules will be administered for a dose?
a. 1 capsule
b. 2 capsules
c. 3 capsules
d. 4 capsules

67. During CPR of an adult client, while performing the chest compressions, the sternum will be
depressed to:
a. ½ to 3/4 inch
b. 3/4 inch to 1 inch
c. 2 to 2 1/2 inches
d. 1 1/2 to 2 inches.

68. In which one of the following situations, the rescuer uses jaw thrust method to open airway?
a. In all situations requiring CPR
b. If the client has a history of epilepsy
c. If The client has a history of head injury
d. If injury of the neck is suspected.

69. Which of the following assessment data is relevant for 3 clients diagnosed with Glaucoma?
a. History of Diabetes Mellitus
b. History of Migraine
c. History of Chronic Sinusitis
d. History of Bronchial Asthma

70. A nurse monitoring the inter costal drainage system of a patient with pneumothorax, notes intermittent bubbling ill the water seal chamber. The most appropriate action would be LV.
a. Inform the Physician
b. Check for air leak
c. Document the observation
d. Clamp the chest drainage tube

71. The arterial blood gas (ABG) report of a client shows a pH of 7.32, PC02- 52rrml Hg, P02-85 rnm
ofHg and Be03 of 27mEq/L. The nurse interprets that the client has :
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis

72. While monitoring a child after tonsillectomy, the nurse observes him swallowing frequently.
This indicates that the child is:
a. Feeling thirsty
b. Recovering from anaesthesia
c. Bleeding
d. Having pain

73. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a patient scheduled for surgery. Which one of the following results is unfavourable?
a. FBS 84 mg%,
b. Hb 8 gm%
c. Serum-creatinine 0.7 mg/dl
d. Blood urea 28 mg/dl.

74. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Glasgow Coma scale?
a. The scale measures the neurological status
b. The sensory responses are easily assessed
c. The maximum score is 15
d. A score less than 8 indicates coma.

75. The site selected by a nurse to administer an intramuscular injection to a 6 month infant is:
a. Vastus lateralis
b. Ventre-gluteal
c. Dorso-gluteal
d. Deltoid

76. Which of the following age group children, engage in parallel play?
a. Infant
b. Toddler
c. Pre-schooler
d. Schooler

77. In which one of the following conditions, Kemig’s sign is considered as a positive indicator?
a. Meningitis
b. Hepatitis
c. Deep vein thrombosis
d. Typhoid

78. Which one of the following is the most potent stimulus for erythropoietin production?
a. Anemia
b. Proteinuria
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Hypoxia

79. One of the major complications that occur during hemodialysis is:
a. Muscle cramps
b. Hypotension’
c. Air embolism
d. Pulmonary edema

80. The left down reflex during breast feeding is influenced by the hormone:
a. Progesterone
b. Oestrogen
c. Prolactin
d. Oxytocin

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