Medical & Surgical Nursing Quiz Questions – 25 No.s

Medical & Surgical Nursing Quiz Questions - 25 No.s

Which of the following sign represents bleeding from artery?
Eustachian tube opens on the lateral wall of?
The inflammation of gall bladder is known as?
In haemoptysis, the color of the blood will be?
The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure is known as?
The complication that nurse should monitor after a liver biopsy is?
Which condition would cause in human by the UV radiation from the sun?
The Bacteriolytic enzyme present in saliva?
The blood test to be monitored in patients receiving oral anticoagulants?
The instrument used for intraoccular pressure?
Pigmentation of skin is due to?
The antidote of paracetamol ?
Which of the following term represents stone in the salivary gland?
The type of shock occurs in the acute stage of burns?
Which of the following condition is used to treat with the drug Isosorbide dinitrate ?
Athelet’s foot is caused by?
The position given to a patient with increased intracranial pressure?
A patient who has a pacemaker might be ineligible for which of the following investigation?
Which lab test is to be monitored while the client is on aminoglycocides therapy?
A patient with Parkinson’s disease would be at risk of falling as a result of?
The spinal cord extends from the brain stem to the level of which vertebrae?
Heart is supplied with which nerve?
Causative organism for infectious mononucleosis?
Which among the following food item is restricted in renal failure?
The wheezing sound of asthmatic patient is due to?
Complete the form below to see results
Medical & Surgical Nursing Quiz Questions - 25 No.s
You got {{userScore}} out of {{maxScore}} correct

“Anatomy and Physiology Nursing Quiz”

Pediatric Nursing Questions and Answers With Rationales

Medical and Surgical Nursing Quiz

1. Temperature regulating center of body is?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Medulla Oblangata
c. Cerebellum
d. Thalamus

2. Which of the following types of cells is most common in the CNS ?
a. Astrocytes
b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Ependyma
d. Microglia

3. Circle of Willis is formed by the following except?
a. Posterior cerbral artery
b. Anterior and posterior communicating arteries
c. Anterior cerbral arteries
d. Basilar arteries

4. Which of the following are mixed cranial nerves?
a. V, VII, IX, X
b. I, II, VIII

5. Which of the following is a screening test for balance?
a. Rinne’s test
b. Webber test
c. Allen’s test
d. Romberg’s test

6. Most important indicators in GCS(Glassgow Coma Scale)?
a. Eye response
b. Verbal response
c. Motor response
d. Pupil response

7. Which of the following instructions to be given before an EEG?
a. NPO for 3 hours
b. Can have clear fluids only
c. Can have breakfast
d. Use stimulants

8. Cob-Web appearance of CSF indicate?
a. Bacterial Meningitis
b. Viral meningitis
c. TB meningitis
d. Encephalitis

9. If GRBS is 120 mg/dL. What is the expected CSF glucose level?
a. 60 mg/dL
b. 70 mg/dL
c. 80 mg/dL
d. 90 mg/dL

10. Which of the following diagnosis is possible only with MRI?
a. Posterior fossa tumour
b. SDH
c. EDH
d. ICH

11. A bruise over the mastoid process in skull fracture is?
a. Raccoon’s eye sign
b. Battle’s sign
c. Lhermitte’s sign
d. Cullen’s sign

12. Which of the following is the first drug of choice of status epilepticus?
a. Phenytoin
b. Phenobarbitone
c. Lorazepam
d. Diazepam

13. “Strict oral hygiene” is instructed to those on?
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamazepine
c. Sodium valporate
d. Hydrocortisone

14. Which of the following drug kept ready during Tensilon test?
a. Atropine
b. Physostigmine
c. Dopamine
d. Hydrocortisone

15. Which of the following vitamin should be restricted for a patient on Levodopa?
a. A
b. B1
c. B6
d. B9

16. Which of the following group of drugs to be withheld if he or she shows classical signs of Parkinson’s disease?
a. Mood stabilizers
b. MAO inhibitors
c. Antipsychotics
d. Antiepileptics

17. A 78-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department with numbness and weakness of the left arm and slurred speech.
Which of the nursing intervention is priority?
a. Prepare to administer recombinent tissue plasminogen activator(tPA)
b. Discuss the precipitating factors that caused the symptoms
c. Schedule for a Stat CT scan of the head
d. Notify the speech pathologist for an emergency consult.

18. A client arrives in the emergency department with ishchemic stroke and receives tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) administration.
Which is the priority nursing assessment?
a. Current medications
b. Complete physical and history
c. Time of onset of current stroke
d. Upcoming surgical procedures

19. A client with head trauma develops a urine output of 300 ml/hr, dry skin, and dry mucous membrane. Which of the following nursing intervention is the most appropriate to perform initially?
a. Evaluate urine specific gravity
b. Anticipate treatment for renal failure
c. Provide emolients to the skin to prevent breakdown
d. Slow down the IV fluids and notify the physician

20. A male client is having tonic-clonic seizure. What should the nurse do first?
a. Elevate the head of the bed
b. Restrain the client’s arms and legs
c. Place a tongue blade in the client’s mouth
d. Take measures to prevent injury

21. The nurse is assessing the motor function of an unconscious patient. the nurse would plan to use which plan to use the client’s peripheral response to pain?
a. Sternal rub
b. Nail bed pressure
c. Pressure on the orbital rim
d. Squeezing of the sternocliedomastoid muscle

22. A female client has experienced an episode of myasthenic crisis.The nurse would assess whether the client has precipitating factors such as?
a. Getting too little exercise
b. Taking excess medications
c. Omitting doses of medications
d. Increasing intake of fatty foods

23. What is the classical signs of autonomic dysreflexia?
a. Hypertension and tachycardia
b. Hypertension and bradycardia
c. Hypotension and tachycardia
d. Hypotension and bradycardia

24. Therapeutic position given after intratentorial surgery?
a. Flat position
b. Semi-Fowler’s position at an angle of 30 degrees
c. Prone position
d. Trendlenburg position

25. Which of the following is contraindicated in cerebral aneurysm?
a. Antihypertensives
b. OHA
c. Anti-lipid therapy
d. Rectal temperature assessment

26. Pentaplegia means quadriplegia plus?
a. Incontinence
b. Retention
c. Respiratory paralysis
d. Paralytic ileus

27. What is CPP of a patient with BP 140/90 mmHg and ICP is 10 mmHg?
a. 96 mmHg
b. 106 mmHg
c. 116 mmHg
d. 120 mmHg

28. The term used to denote the inability to identify familiar objects?
a. Apraxia
b. Aphasia
c. Agnosia
d. Achalasia

29. Paralysis of corresponding parts on both sides of the body, typically affecting the legs more severely than the arms is termed as?
a. Monoplegia
b. Diplegia
c. Quadriplegia
d. Paraplegia

30. Mr. Shyju has undergone an attack of head injury. At present he is not able to talk but able to understand everything.
Which of the following lobe of brain is involved?
a. Frontal
b. Parietal
c. Temporal
d. Occipital lobe

Image Based (O.T Instruments) Questions and Answers with explanation.