Kerala PSC Assistant Professor in Nursing Exam Provisional Answer Key 2023

Assistant Professor in Nursing Exam Provisional Answer Key

Are you looking for the provisional answer key for the Assistant Professor in Nursing exam conducted by Kerala PSC on 25/05/23? If yes, then you are at the right place.

The Assistant Professor in Nursing exam was held on 25/05/23 from 10:00 AM to 12:15 PM. The exam consisted of 100 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering various topics related to nursing education, research, administration, and clinical practice. The exam was conducted in English language and had a maximum mark of 100. The exam duration was 75 minutes and there was a negative marking of 0.33 for each wrong answer.

The provisional answer key for the Assistant Professor in Nursing exam is given below. Please note that this is a provisional answer key and it may be subject to change after the final evaluation and verification by Kerala PSC. The candidates can raise objections to the provisional answer key within five days from the date of publication of the answer key on the official website of Kerala PSC. The objections should be submitted online through the OTR profile of the candidates with supporting documents and references.

Provisional Answer Key of Assistant Professor in Nursing Exam 2023

1:- First priority to be done when a nurse makes a medication error is

A:- Assess the patient’s condition
B:- Notify physician in-charge
C:- Identify the type of error
D:- Chart medicine in patient’s record

2:- Providing comprehensive client care across the continuum of practice setting is

A:- Case management
B:- Team nursing
C:- Modular nursing
D:- Primary nursing

3:- Essential components of the goal include

A:- Target date, nursing action, criteria, desired behavior
B:- Expected behavior, diagnosis, intervention, subject
C:- Subject, behavior, nursing action, criteria
D:- Task statement, criteria, condition, time frame

4:- Educating clients regarding mental health is an example of adhering to the principle of

A:- Autonomy
B:- Beneficence
C:- Non maleficence
D:- Justice

5:- Endorsement by a specialized organization that a nurse has certain qualifications that exceed basic competence is

A:- Licensure
B:- Accreditation
C:- Credentialing
D:- Standard practice

6:- Fundamental postulates of Martha E. Roger’s Theory include

A:- Conservation, adaptation, wholeness, integrity
B:- Transpersonal caring, caring relation, caring occasion, creative factor
C:- Energy field, openness, pattern, pan dimensionality
D:- Stabilization, reorganization, interaction, order

7:- When interacting with a client, “Everything will be alright” is an example of inappropriate communication techniques, known as

A:- Stereotyping
B:- Being judgmental
C:- Paraphrasing
D:- Using cliché

8:- The largest vein of the heart is

A:- Great cardiac vein
B:- Coronary sinus
C:- Anterior cardiac vein
D:- Aortic sinus

9:- Most common monosaccharide in the human diet is

A:- Fructose, glucose, galactose
B:- Sucrose, lactose, maltose
C:- Lysine, leucine, methionine
D:- Tryptophan, histidine, valine

10:- Intramuscular injections are given in

A:- Gluteus maximums
B:- Gluteus medius
C:- Gluteus superior
D:- Gluteus inferior

11:- Elements of evidence-based practice include

A:- Research design, level of evidence, method, source of funding
B:- Database, selection, evidence ranking, analysis
C:- Level of evidence, source of data, implication, standard practice
D:- Population, intervention, comparison, outcome

12:- Maximal air that can be inhaled after a quiet inspiration is

A:- Inspiratory reserve volume
B:- Forced inspiratory capacity
C:- Inspiratory capacity
D:- Vital capacity

13:- Strength of solution used for management of large blood spill greater than 10 cm in size

A:- 1: 100 dilution of 5% hypochlorite
B:- 1: 10 dilution of 5% hypochlorite
C:- 1: 5 dilution of 5% hypochlorite
D:- 1: 2 dilution of 5% hypochlorite

14:- Non-burn dry thermal disinfection in which waste is shredded and heated in a rotating auger is

A:- Inertization
B:- Pyrolytic incineration
C:- Microwave irradiation
D:- Screw feed technology

15:- Eubacteria that are incapable of forming a cell wall is

A:- Mycobacteria
B:- Actinomycetes
C:- Mycoplasma
D:- Spirochetes

16:- Pupils undergo a series of changes during cerebral compression which is termed as

A:- Marcus Gunn pupil
B:- Hutchinsonian pupils
C:- Adie’s pupil
D:- Argyll Robertson pupil

17:- A method of suppressing tachycardia by pacing the heart at a rate faster than the patient’s intrinsic rate.

A:- Sensing
B:- Pacing threshold
C:- Oversensing
D:- Overdrive pacing

18:- When a patient receives propylthiouracil which of the following need to be promptly reported?

A:- Constipation
B:- Dysmenorrhea
C:- Sore throat
D:- Urinary frequency

19:- The most serious complication associated with chest tube placement is

A:- Emphysema
B:- Tension pneumothorax
C:- Pneumonia
D:- Atelectasis

20:- For liver transplantation which of the following are included in the MELD score?

A:- Creatinine, bilirubin, albumin
B:- Creatinine, bilirubin, INR
C:- Creatinine, bilirubin, bleeding time
D:- Creatinine, bilirubin, ammonia

Assistant Professor Nursing Exam Answer Key

21:- After using inhaled corticosteroids patient is instructed to rinse and spit to prevent the development of

A:- Tooth decay
B:- Oral candidiasis
C:- Mouth ulcerations
D:- Halitosis

22:- The most sensitive sign of an increased ICP is

A:- Respiratory depression
B:- Pupillary changes
C:- Change in the level of consciousness
D:- Position changes

23:- Rapid infusion of saline in a patient with DKA leads to the development of

A:- Cardiac arrhythmias
B:- Electrolyte imbalances
C:- Pulmonary or cerebral edema
D:- Gastrointestinal upset

24:- Nosocomial bacteremia associated with intravascular lines and wound care may result in

A:- Infective endocarditis
B:- Pneumonia
C:- Hypertension
D:- Dehiscence

25:- Sudden intense mid-epigastric pain radiating to the right shoulder may indicate

A:- Strangulated hernia
C:- Gastric outlet obstruction
D:- Ulcer perforation

26:- Which antiemetic drug should be avoided in patients with liver dysfunction due to its cholestatic effect?

A:- Ondansetron
B:- Metoclopramide
C:- Prochlorperazine
D:- Domperidone

27:- Which of the following surgical step is not included in modified radical mastectomy?

A:- Total mastectomy
B:- Axillary block dissection
C:- Removal of the pectoralis major
D:- Removal of pectoralis minor

28:- Fracture in which bone has splintered into several fragments is called

A:- Avulsion fracture
B:- Greenstick fracture
C:- Complete fracture
D:- Comminuted fracture

29:- Pernicious anemia is due to the deficiency of

A:- Iron
B:- Folic acid
C:- Vitamin B12
D:- Vitamin C

30:- While giving preoperative education the nurse explains to the patient undergoing ostomy surgery that the procedure that maintains the most normal consistency of stool is

A:- A sigmoid colostomy
B:- A transverse colostomy
C:- A descending colostomy
D:- An ascending colostomy

31:- What is the structure through which blood and nerve enter an ovary?

A:- Uterine artery
B:- Pudendal artery
C:- Mesouvarium
D:- Ovarian fossa

32:- Which of the following is the most likely finding in neonates with asphyxia?

A:- Acidemia
B:- Alkalemia
C:- Hypocapnea
D:- Tachycardia

33:- The distance between the lower border of the symphysis pubis to the midpoint in the sacral promontory

A:- Anatomical conjugate
B:- Obstetric conjugate
C:- True conjugate
D:- Diagonal conjugate

34:- The decidual layer through which separation of the placenta is taking place

A:- Decidua basalis
B:- Decidua parietalia
C:- Decidua capsularis
D:- Decidua vera

35:- Average blood loss if carefully measured in a vaginal delivery is

A:- 250 ml
B:- 600 ml
C:- 1000 ml
D:- 100 ml

36:- Which is the correct statement of cervical incompetency?

A:- It is associated with abortion
B:- Characterized by painless dilatation of the cervix after the first trimester
C:- It is long and thin so it is very weak
D:- Cervix is unhealthy, unable to hold the product of conception

37:- What is the beneficiary action of DMPA in endometriosis?

A:- It suppresses ovulation and thickens cervical mucus
B:- It is a contraceptive injection
C:- Inhibit gonadotropin action and the endometrial hyperplasia
D:- It is a GNRh analogue, preventing follicular maturation

38:- Fetus starts sucking and swallowing at which weeks of fetal life

A:- 12 weeks
B:- 16 weeks
C:- 24 weeks
D:- 28 weeks

39:- What is the minimum time required before testing the semen analysis for spermatogenesis report after taking medications?

A:- 60 days
B:- 7 days
C:- 90 days
D:- 30 days

40:- Antiretroviral treatment with zidovudine starts at which period of gestation?

A:- 24 weeks
B:- 14 weeks
C:- 18 weeks
D:- 32 weeks

Nursing Assistant Exam Questions And Answers

41:- What is the standard dose for the administration of salbutamol in 3 ml of normal saline during a nebulization procedure?

A:- 0.001 mg/kg/dose
B:- 0.01 mg/kg/dose
C:- 0.15 mg/kg/dose
D:- 0.005 mg/kg/dose

42:- Which of the following statements is not correct for non-poisonous

i. Ventral and dorsal surfaces of snakes are covered with small scales.
ii. Well-known hood and spectacle mark on the head.
iii. Central raw of large hexagonal scales along the entire length of the body and the forth
infralabial is the largest.
iv. Roundhead, short, solid teeth, and large head scales.

A:- i and ii
B:- ii and iii
C:- iii and iv
D:- i and iv

43:- When scoring the neuromuscular maturity of a newborn, a square window angle in a full-term newborn baby will be

A:- 90°
B:- 30°
C:- 45°
D:- 0°

44:- Which of the following is a clinical sign present in children with trisomy-21?

A:- Koplik spot
B:- Brush field spot
C:- Ash leaf spot
D:- Collodion spot

45:- Which of the following feature is not a diagnostic criterion for severe acute Malnutrition for babies between 6 months and 60 months?

A:- Weight for age ≥ 80%
B:- Weight for height < 3 SD
C:- Mid-upper arm circumference less than 11.5 cm
D:- Presence of bilateral edema

46:- Which pediatric condition is characterized by the “Tripple bubble sign” in X-ray?

A:- Jejunal atresia
B:- Patent Ductus Arteriosus
C:- Aortic stenosis
D:- Worm infestation

47:- What is the best screening test used for the detection of cystic fibrosis?

A:- Rothera’s test
B:- Hess test
C:- Sweat chloride test
D:- Zeihl-Neelson test

48:- What is the amount of Sodium Present in .9% Normal Saline, .45% Normal Saline and Isolyte-P respectively?

A:- 100 m Eq/L, 50 m Eq/L, 10 m Eq/L
B:- 304 m Eq/L, 152 m Eq/L, 60 m Eq/L
C:- 250 m Eq/L, 125 m Eq/L, 20 m Eq/L
D:- 154 m Eq/L, 77 m Eq/L, 25 m Eq/L

49:- Which pediatric surgical condition is characterized by “String Sign” in the barium meal study of the child presented with

A:- Posterior urethral valve
B:- Anorectal malformation
C:- Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
D:- Intussusception

50:- What is the standard operation for the treatment of Biliary Atresia in children?

A:- Ladd’s procedure
B:- Ramstedt’s surgery
C:- Swenson’s surgery
D:- Kasai procedure

51:- Cotard’s syndrome occurs more commonly in

A:- Schizophrenia
B:- Delusional disorder
C:- Psychotic depression
D:- Psychotic mania

52:- Depressive individuals exhibit which of the following symptoms?

A:- Behavioral symptoms
B:- Physical symptoms
C:- Cognitive symptoms
D:- All the above

53:- Pseudologia Fantastica is also called as

A:- Fregoli syndrome
B:- Catatonia
C:- Pathological lying
D:- Narcolepsy

54:- Coprolalia is found in

A:- Alcoholic intoxication
B:- Tourette’s syndrome
C:- Mania
D:- Delirium

55:- Ekbom syndrome is referred to as

A:- Delusion of persecution
B:- Delusion of love
C:- Delusion of infestation
D:- Delusion of infidelity

56:- Romberg test is used to assess

A:- Movement
B:- Eye-coordination
C:- Balance
D:- Memory

57:- Chasing the dragon refers to the smoking of

C:- Nicotine
D:- Heroin

58:- Who coined the term for hypnosis as animal magnetism?

A:- J.M. Charcot
B:- Franz Anton Mesmer
C:- James Braid
D:- Hippolyte Bernheim

59:- “Kluver-Bucy” syndrome characterized by all except

A:- Visual Agnosia
B:- Hyper Sexuality
C:- Hyper Orality
D:- Fear

60:- A neuromuscular blocking agent is administered to a client before ECT therapy. The nurse should carefully observe the client for

A:- Seizers
B:- Nausea and vomiting
C:- Respiratory difficulties
D:- Dizziness

Assistant Professor Nursing Kerala Psc Question Paper & Answers

61:- Which of the following is false regarding OPV?

A:- Residual neuroparalysis is a complication
B:- Requires sub-zero temperature for storing
C:- It is a killed vaccine
D:- Induces intestinal and long-term humoral immunity

62:- PQLI [Physical Quality of Life Index] includes all the following except

A:- Expectancy of life at the age of 1 year
B:- Literacy rate
C:- Infant mortality rate
D:- Percapita GNP

63:- Transovarian transmission of infection occurs in

A:- Fleas
B:- Ticks
C:- Mosquitoes
D:- Sandfly

64:- Natural methods of contraception have ____ side effects and have ____ rate of failure.

A:- Many, high
B:- Less, high
C:- Many, low
D:- Less, low

65:- Committee on “medical education and support manpower” was also known as

A:- Shrivasthava committee
B:- Bhore committee
C:- Kartar Singh committee
D:- Jungalwalli committee

66:- All are true regarding point source epidemic except

A:- No secondary waves occur
B:- Occurs within a specified period
C:- All cases occur abruptly and simultaneously
D:- Children are most commonly affected

67:- Which author developed a framework for public health nursing?

A:- Nancy Milio
B:- Lydia Hall
C:- Kings
D:- Mark Salmon Whites

68:- All the following methods are used to remove the hardness of water except
A:- Addition of sodium carbonate
B:- Base exchange process
C:- Chlorination
D:- Boiling

69:- Snehapoorvam Scheme mainly meant for

A:- Initiative by GOK to support children with a congenital disorder
B:- Self-employment scheme for dependents of crime victims
C:- Financial support to orphans who are living in the family with their relatives,
friends or support of the community
D:- None of the above

70:- Aedes transmits all the following viral diseases except

A:- Japanese B encephalitis
B:- Dengue hemorrhagic fever
C:- Chikungunya fever
D:- Yellow fever

71:- Functional concept gives more importance to the responsibilities of the

A:- Manager
B:- Follower
C:- Client
D:- All of them

72:- Who defined management as the art of knowing what you wanted to do in the best and cheapest way?

A:- Theo Haimann
B:- Mary Parker
C:- Harold Koontz
D:- F. W. Tailor

73:- Administration is

A:- Superior to management
B:- Inferior to management
C:- Ulterior to management
D:- Same as that of management

74:- Middle-level management is also known as

A:- Technical
B:- Administrative
C:- Executor
D:- Operative

75:- Which among the following is not related to SWOT analysis?

A:- Keep SWOT short and simple
B:- Remember that SWOT is objective
C:- Be realistic
D:- Always apply SWOT in relation to your competitors

76:- Individuals’ unique and relatively stable patterns of behavior, thoughts and feelings

A:- Character
B:- Conduct
C:- Personality
D:- Affect

77:- Portion of the brain that seems to play an important role in the regulation of circadian rhythms

A:- Suprachiasmatic nucleus
B:- Substantia nigra
C:- Pons
D:- Amygdala

78:- Movements of various body parts that convey specific meaning in a given culture

A:- Body language
B:- Kinesthetic
C:- Gesture
D:- Tics

79:- Operation research as management technique used in material management focuses on

A:- Right item
B:- Right method
C:- Right delivery
D:- Right quantity

80:- Reorder level is

A:- (Average consumption per day) × (lead time) + (buffer stock)
B:- (Average consumption per year) × (lead time) + (buffer stock)
C:- (Average consumption per day) × (lead time) + (buffer stock) × 365
D:- (Average consumption per day)× (lead time) + (buffer stock) × 7

81:- Read the following scenario and identify how self-esteem is achieved. A staff nurse in the recovery room feels she/he has the time to assess, plan and give good care and attend to good documentation of care. She/he even has an opportunity for reading references needed to keep professional knowledge and skills updated.

A:- Self-esteem through confidence
B:- Self-esteem through mastery
C:- Self-esteem through adequacy
D:- Self-esteem through strength

82:- NMMDS stands for

A:- Nursing Moving Management Decision Set
B:- Nursing Management Making Decision Survey
C:- Nursing Management Minimum Data Set
D:- Nursing Minimum Moving Data Survey

83:- A civil wrong that can be redressed in civil proceedings

A:- Tort
B:- Negligence
C:- Malpractice
D:- Maleficence

84:- Henry L. Gantt developed Gantt Chart as a means for

A:- Controlling use
B:- Controlling misuse
C:- Controlling errors
D:- Controlling production

85:- Standards of practice and standards of care in nursing practice in all domains can be termed as

A:- Legal obligation
B:- Benchmark
C:- Ethical guidelines
D:- Conceptual principle

86:- Group decision-making process for generating a large number of ideas in which each member works by himself or herself

A:- Brainstorming
B:- Multi Voting
C:- Nominal group technique
D:- Delphi method

87:- A mental shortcut suggesting that the easier it is to bring something to mind, the more frequent or important it is

A:- Confirmation bias
B:- Availability Heuristic
C:- Intuitive thought
D:- Fluidity planning

88:- Temporary withholding of information about a study from participants

A:- Deception
B:- Debiasing
C:- Blinding
D:- Masking

89:- Translation of physical energy into electrical signals by specialized receptor cells

A:- Perception
B:- Transition
C:- Translucent
D:- Transduction

90:- A form of forward conditioning in which the onset of the conditioned stimulus precedes the onset of the unconditioned stimulus and the presentation of the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli do not overlap

A:- Trace conditioning
B:- Delay conditioning
C:- Reverse conditioning
D:- Forward conditioning

91:- A genetically inherited impairment in the ability to experience pleasure

A:- Anhedonia
B:- Hypohedonia
C:- Apathy
D:- Genhedonia

92:- According to blooms taxonomy among the following technology tool enhances synthesis in thinking skills

A:- Spreadsheets
B:- Concept map
C:- Powerpoint
D:- Digital storytelling

93:- An absolute clinical grading scale rates performance relative to a

A:- Pooled scores
B:- Standard
C:- Best performance
D:- Average performance

94:- Mastery tests have

A:- High variability
B:- Low variability
C:- No variability
D:- Floating variability

95:- Assessment purposes in Service learning is

A:- Higher levels of the cognitive domain
B:- Lower levels of the cognitive domain
C:- All levels of the cognitive domain
D:- Psychomotor-based cognitive domain

96:- Which among the following teaching strategies are used in courses delivered by synchronous technologies that encourage simulated decision-making, collaboration, and engagement?

A:- Learning circles
B:- Roleplays
C:- Debates
D:- Study groups

97:- Which among the following is not an advantage of podcasts, enhanced podcasts, and vodcasts?

A:- Learner-centered
B:- Engaging across learning styles
C:- Compatible across various platforms
D:- Inexpensive

98:- Which among the following student misconduct is termed under administrative violation?

A:- Texting or using social media during class hours
B:- Discourteous or inappropriate comments
C:- Arriving late and leaving early from the class
D:- Fabrication

99:- Philosophical perspective which says “The role of the learner is to make choices about what is important and the role of a teacher is to facilitate their learning”?

A:- Progressivisim
B:- Realism
C:- Idealism
D:- Post modernism

100:- A memory system that stores general abstract knowledge about the word information we cannot remember acquiring at a specific time and place.

A:- Episodic memory
B:- Semantic memory
C:- Working memory
D:- Serial position memory