RCC Trivandrum Staff Nurse Exam Questions and Answers Part – 2

RCC Trivandrum Staff Nurse Exam Questions and Answers Part-2

Community Health Nursing Part-1 Click Here

Total Quiz Questions=25
Mark/Question= 4
Total Marks=100
RCC Trivandrum Staff Nurse Exam Questions and Answers.
You must try these nursing questions and answers before appearing any nursing interview, staff nurse exam or nursing school exam. It will be helpful for both nurses and student nurses.

  1. The most common malignant bone tumor affecting children and young adult is?
  2. a). Multiple myeloma.
    b). Osteosarcoma.
    c). Ewing’s sarcoma.
    d). Osteoclastoma.

  3. A monoclonal antibody used for treatment of metastatic breast cancer?
  4. a). Rituximab.
    b). Trastuzumab.
    c). Bevacizumab.
    d). Cetuximab.

  5. Among the following which is not a characteristics of cancer cells?
  6. a). Well differentiation.
    b). Local invasion.
    c). Abnormal mitotic figures.
    d). Undifferentiation.

  7. Which of the following is the most common site of metastasis?
  8. a). Kidney.
    b). Liver.
    c). Breast.
    d). Spleen.

  9. Which among the following is not a major criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
  10. a). Carditis.
    b). Fever.
    c). Polyarthritis.
    d). Subcutaneous nodules.

  11. A patient who has undergone left frontal craniotomy for brain tumors, developed headache, increased lethargy and right sided leg weakness what may be the most likely etiology?
  12. a). Seizure.
    b). Increased ICP.
    c). Pulmonary embolism.
    d). Guillian barre syndrome.

  13. For a premenopausal woman which is the best time to be advised to do the breast self examination?
  14. a). 5 to 7 days after menstrual period.
    b). 5 to 7 days before menstrual period.
    c). Any time irrespective of menstrual period.
    d). Two weeks after menstrual period.

  15. Which of the following cell type is most likely to be found in head and neck cancer?
  16. a). Basal cell carcinoma.
    b). Adenocarcinoma.
    c). Squamous cell carcinoma.
    d). Small cell carcinoma.

  17. A client receiving chemotherapy for lung cancer has Neutrophils count 600/mm.
    Which statement should be included in the teaching for this client?
  18. a). Avoid eating spicy food.
    b). Avoid eating raw fruits and vegetables.
    c). Avoid using manual razor to shave.
    d). Avoid using facial mask.

  19. Post operative nursing assessment after radical hysterectomy for endometrial cancer includes detecting which of the following potential complication?
  20. a). Ascitis.
    b). Infection and hemorrhage.
    c). Proctitis.
    d). Mucositis.

  21. For a client with colorectal cancer who has undergone bowel resection, which of the following is not included in immediate post operative nursing diagnosis?
  22. a). Pain.
    b). Risk for infection.
    c). Sexual dysfunction.
    d). Impaired skin integrity.

  23. Which of the following would be considered as the most important immediate post operative nursing intervention for a client with prostate cancer?
  24. a). Psychological support.
    b). Catheter care.
    c). Skin care.
    d). Pain management and adequate urine output.

  25. The nurse is teaching a client regarding proper skin care for external radiation treatment. The nurse knows the client understands when the client states?
  26. a). He/she will wash the area daily with betadine solution.
    b). He/she will keep the area covered with an occlusive dressing.
    c). He/she will wear clothing that does not place pressure on the area.
    d). He/she will apply my skin lotion to the area.

  27. A patient with myocardial infarction of the anterior wall of the left ventricle, most likely has an occlusion of the?
  28. a). Right marginal artery.
    b). Left circumflex artery.
    c). Left anterior descending artery.
    d). Right anterior descending artery.

  29. 15. As gastric contents move into the small intestine the bowel normally protected from the acidity of gastric contents by the?
  30. a). Inhibition of secretion release.
    b). Release of bicarbonate by the pancreas.
    c). Release of pancreatic digestive enzymes.
    d). Release of gastric by the duodenal mucosa.

  31. In preparing a patient for a colonoscopy, the nurse explains that?
  32. a). A signed consent is not necessary.
    b). Sedation may be used during the procedure.
    c). Only cleansing enema is necessary for preparation.
    d). A normal diet as usual can be taken the day before the procedure.

  33. Following thyroid surgery, the nurse suspects damage or removal of the parathyroid glands when the patient develops?
  34. a). Laryngeal stridor.
    b). Muscle weakness.
    c). Hoarseness and difficulty in swallowing.
    d). Hyperthermia and severe tachycardia.

  35. The patient with advanced cirrhosis liver asks the nurse why his abdomen is swollen.
    The nurse’s response to the patient is based on the knowledge that?
  36. a). A lack of clotting factors promotes the collection of blood in the abdominal cavity.
    b). Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminuria cause a fluid shift into the peritoneal cavity.
    c). Decreased peristalsis in the GI tract contributes to gas formation and distention of the bowel.
    d). Bile salts in the blood irritate the peritoneal membrane causing edema and collection of fluid.

  37. A patient with renal disease has oliguria and a creatinine clearance of 40 ml per minute.
    The nurse recognizes that these findings most directly reflect abnormal function of?
  38. a). Tubular secretion.
    b). Glomerular filtration.
    c). Capillary permeability.
    d). Concentration of filtrate.

  39. Nursing management of the patient with acute pancreatitis includes?
  40. a). Checking for signs of hypercalcemia.
    b). Observing stools for signs of Steatorrhoea.
    c). Providing a diet low in carbohydrates with moderate fat.
    d). Monitoring for infection especially respiratory infection.

  41. An appropriate technique to use during physical assessment of the thyroid gland is?
  42. a). Asking the patient to hyper extend the neck during palpation.
    b). Percussing the neck for dullness to define the size of the thyroid.
    c). Having the patient swallow water during inspection and palpation of the gland.
    d). Using deep palpation to determine the extent of a visibly enlarged thyroid gland.

  43. Post operatively, a patient who has had a transurethral prostatectomy has continuous bladder irrigation with a three way tube with 30 ml balloon catheter applied. The patient complaints that he feels the urge to void even with the catheter in place. The nurse should?
  44. a). Hand irrigate the catheter to ensure it is patent.
    b). Deflate the catheter balloon to a 10 ml to decrease bulk in the bladder.
    c). Encourage the patient to try to have a bowel movement to relieve colon pressure.
    d). Explain that this feeling is normal and that he should not try to urinate around the catheter.

  45. The best suitable position to administer a cleansing enema is?
  46. a). Lithotomy.
    b). Sim’s left lateral.
    c). Supine.
    d). Prone.

  47. The technique effleurage means?
  48. a). Beating and chopping strokes.
    b). Tapping the back with both hands.
    c). Muscles are grabbed and lifted.
    d). Applying long, slow, gliding strokes.

  49. The ethical principle which focuses on doing no harm to the client is?
  50. a). Justice.
    b). Solidarity.
    c). Beneficence.
    d). Non maleficence.

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