Kerala PSC DME Staff Nurse Exam 2021 Provisional Answer Key

Kerala PSC DME Staff Nurse Exam 2021 Provisional Answer Key

Kerala PSC DME exam conducted on 19/12/2021 at 1.30pm, Now Kerala PSC published official answer key, you can check it now here.

1. Which of the following forms the myelin sheath in the central nervous system?
a. Astrocytes
b. Microglia
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Schwann cell

2. Which cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle of the eye?
a. 3rd (Oculomotor)
b. 4th (Trochlear)
c. 5th (Trigeminal)
d. 6th (Abducens)

3. Which of the following is a hinge joint?
a. Elbow joint
b. Shoulder joint
c. Hip joint
d. Atlantoaxial joint

4. Which of the following cells secrete pulmonary surfactant?
a. Type I alveolar cells
b. Type II alveolar cells
c. Type III alveolar cells
d. Type IV alveolar cells

5. Which of the following photoreceptor helps in “bright light vision”?
a. Rodes
b. Cones
c. Pons
d. Opsin

6. Bacterial cell walls are mainly composed of
a. Peptidoglycan
b. Lipoproteins
c. Polysaccharides
d. Triglycerides

7. Which one among the following is a gram-positive bacterium?
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Escherichia coli
d. Yersinia pestis

8. Bacilli are the term used for
a. Spherical bacteria
b. Comma-shaped bacteria
c. Rod-shaped bacteria
d. Spiral bacteria

9. The term ‘invasiveness’ indicates
a. The capacity of microbes to cause disease
b. The ability of a pathogen to produce toxins after infection
c. The ability of microbes to spread from one host to another
d. The ability of a pathogen to spread in the host tissue after establishing infection

10. Which among the following statements is not true about the normal microbial flora of
human body?
a. They can never become pathogenic even when host defences fail
b. They can interfere with colonisation of the body by pathogens
c. They can stimulate an immune response in the host against pathogens having shared antigens
d. They can complicate diagnosis due to their widespread presence in the body

11. Father of psychoanalysis
a. Erik Erickson
b. Sigmund Freud
c. Abraham Maslow
d. Watson

12. As per the psychosocial development theory of Erikson identity and role confusion is associated with
a. Infancy
b. Toddler
c. Preschooler
d. Adolescents

13. Ability to see beyond outward behaviour and sense accurately inner experience of another at a given point is
a. Genuineness
b. Empathy
c. Trust
d. Intimacy

14. Deficiency of serotonin causes
a. Depression
b. Schizophrenia
c. Mania
d. Mental retardation

15. Ivan Pavlov is associated with
a. Needs theory
b. Neurotransmittors
c. Oparent conditioning
d. Classical conditioning

16. Perception without stimuli is
a. Delusion
b. Hallucination
c. Illusion
d. Phobia

17. Behavioral pattern of everyday life which unconsciously arises within a group is
a. Personality
b. Conduct
c. Character
d. Culture

18. World Mental Health Day
a. August 10
b. September 10
c. October 10
d. December 10

19. Government of India announced year of empowerment of women in the year
a. 2000
b. 2001
c. 2002
d. 2003

20. Which among the following is not a type of marriage?
a. Endogamy
b. Exogamy
c. Epigamy
d. Polygamy

21. Indirect speech that is delayed in reaching the point but eventually gets from the
original point to desired goal
a. Flight of ideas
b. Tangentiality
c. Loosening of association
d. Circumstantiality

22. Therapeutic communication technique where directing ideas, feelings, questions, or content back to client so as to enable exploring their own ideas and feelings about a
a. Probing
b. Clarifying
c. Reflecting
d. Challenging

23. MSE means
a. Mental Screening Examination
b. Mood Screening Examination
c. Mood Status Examination
d. Mental Status Examination

24. Word meaning “Schizophrenia” is
a. Split mind
b. Split personality
c. Split thought
d. Split emotions

25. Delirium Tremens means
a. Severe alcohol withdrawal symptoms
b. Severe opioid withdrawal symptoms
c. Severe cannabis withdrawal symptoms
d. Severe sedatives withdrawal symptoms

DME Staff Nurse Exam 2021 Answer Key

26. Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD) is a
a. Antipsychotic
b. Antianxietic
c. Antidepressant
d. Hallucinogen

27. Intelligence quotient (IQ) 55-70 indicates
a. Mild instinctual deficiency
b. Moderate intellectual deficiency
c. Severe intellectual deficiency
d. Profound intellectual deficiency

28. A feeling of internal motor restlessness that can present as tension, nervousness, or anxiety.
a. Akinesia
b. Astonia
c. Akathisia
d. Agnosis

29. Practice of gaining sexual pleasure from watching others when they are naked or engaged in sexual activity.
a. Fetishism
b. Transvestism
c. Sexual sadism
d. Voyeurism

30. When a person is unable to cope with the natural process of development.
a. Maturational crisis
b. Situational crisis
c. Adventitious crisis
d. Growth crisis

31. The term ‘nursing process’ was originally used by
a. V Henderson
b. L. Hall
c. D. Johnson
d. B. Neuman

32. Pupillary reflex is checked to find out the functioning of _____ nerve.
a. Optic Nerve
b. Oculomotor
c. Trigeminal
d. Abducens

33. Tamoxifen is
a. Estrogen agonist
b. Progesterone agonist
c. Estrogen antagonist
d. Progesterone antagonist

34. Dose of Tenecteplase
a. 0.5 mg/kg
b. 1.5 mg/kg
c. 1 mg/kg
d. 2 mg/kg

35. Drug derived from Streptomycin Venzuelae
a. Streptomycin
b. Streptokinase
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Tetracycline

36. A patient is ordered 2 mg Morphine. Available vial contains 10 mg per ml. Find out the amount of drug to be administered in ml.
a. 0.1 ml
b. 0.2 ml
c. 0.4 ml
d. 0.5 ml

37. Percentage of oxygen delivered through ‘red’ coloured venturi mask is
a. 35
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60

38. Depth of chest compression in adult CPR
a. 2.5 cm
b. 3 cm
c. 5 cm
d. 6 cm

39. In most cases, Point of Maximum Impulse (PMI) is at
a. 4th Intercostal space left sternal border
b. 5th Intercostal space left sternal border
c. 4th Intercostal space midclavicular line
d. 5th Intercostal space midclavicular line.

40. What is meant by ‘trough’ ?
a. time it takes for a medication to reach its highest effective concentration.
b. minimum blood serum concentration of medication
c. blood serum concentration of medication reached and maintained after repeated fixed doses
d. the level at which a medication produces a response

41. Normal glomerular filtration rate is
a. 30 mL/min/1.73m2
b. 60 mL/min/1.73m2
c. 85 mL/min/1.73m2
d. 125 mL/min/1.73 m2

42. Cooper’s ligaments are located at
a. Abdomen
b. Breast
c. Knee joint
d. Shoulder joint

43. Licox catheter system is used to
a. Assess cerebral oxygenation
b. Drain CSF
c. Administer chemotherapy
d. Assess ICP

44. Inj. Pamidronate is indicated in
a. hyperkalemia
b. organophosphorous poisoning
c. organocarbamate poisoning
d. hypercalcemia

45. Carpal tunnel syndrome is compression of
a. Radial nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Metacarpal nerve

46. Felty’s syndrome is a complication of
a. Ostecoarthritis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. SLE
d. Osteochondritis

47. Volume of blood in litres pumped by heart in one minute
a. Stroke volume
b. Stroke index
c. Cardiac index
d. Cardiac output

48. Drug of choice in renal cell carcinoma
a. Imatinib
b. Trastuzumab
c. Pazopanib
d. Temozolomide

49. Palpable gall bladder in a jaundiced patient due to biliary obstruction is called
a. Blumer’s sign
b. Courvoisier’s sign
c. Blumberg sign
d. Roger’s sign

50. Another name for Osteitis deformans
a. Pott’s disease
b. Paget’s disease
c. Adult Rickets
d. Scoliosis

DME Exam 2021 Answer Key

51. Which among the following is the correct sequence of referral system in Kerala?
a. Subcentre-Primary Health Centre-Community Health Centre-District hospital
b. Subscentre-Community Health Centre-Primary Health Centre-District hospital
c. Community Health Centre-Primary Health Centre-District hospital-Subscentre
d. District hospital-Primary Health Centre-Community Health Centre-Subscentre

52. Identify the nutrient of Proximate principle.
I. Carbohydrate
II. Fat
III. Protein
IV. Vitamin
V. Mineral
a. I, II and III
b. II, III and IV
c. III, IV and V
d. None of the above

53. How many mega doses of Vitamin A are given in the Vitamin A prophylaxis programme?
a. 5 mega doses
b. 10 mega doses
c. 9 mega doses
d. 11 mega doses

54. Pentavalent vaccine is a combination of the following vaccine. Choose the right
a. Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, H1N1, H1N5, and Haemophilus Influenzae Type B.
b. Diphtheria, Pneumococcal vaccine, IPV, Hepatitis B and Haemophilus Influenzae Type B
c. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, IPV, Pneumococcal vaccine
d. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B and Haemophilus Influenzae Type B

zae Type B

55. In WIFS programme the target age group is
a. 15 to 45 years
b. 1 to 5 years
c. 10 to 19 years
d. Above 60 years

56. A Cervical cancer screening was conducted in a rural community among 1000 adult population. During the survey it was found that 8 women already diagnosed with
Cancer of Cervix and 12 new cases of cancer of Cervix identified. Estimate the prevalence of Cancer of Cervix in the community. (No. of males – 440 and No. of
females – 560)
a. 2%
b. 3.57%
c. 2.14%
d. 1.45%

57. Identify the public health functionaries at the Primary Health Centre
c. MCH officer – PHNS – JPHN
d. ASHA – MCH officer – JPHN

58. Which is not a principle of Primary Health Care?
a. Equitable distribution
b. Community participation
c. Intersectoral approach
d. Multidimensionality of health

59. Regular exercise is an example of which level of prevention?
a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. None of the above

60. Which is not a barrier method of contraception?
a. Condom
b. Cervical Cap
c. Copper-T
d. Diaphragm

61. The expected weight (kg) of a child at the age of 8 years is ______
a. 20.5
b. 28.5
c. 30.5
d. 35.5

62. An informed consent given by a child below ______ years of age is considered invalid legally.
a. 7
b. 12
c. 15
d. 18

63. The age group who are most at risk for stressful experience as a result of illness and hospitalization is _______
a. Toddler
b. Preschooler
c. Schooler
d. Adolescent

64. Giving other foods and liquids in addition to breast milk or nonhuman milk to an infant is _______
a. Partial breast feeding
b. Artificial feeding
c. Replacement feeding
d. Complementary feeding

65. According to WHO recommendation in COVID-19 pandemic, generally, children aged 5 years and below should wear which type of mask?
a. No mask
b. Fabric mask
c. N-95 mask
d. Triple layer surgical mask

66. The age at which children can localize pain is _______
a. At birth
b. > 1 year
c. >2 years
d. > 3 years

a. 950 ml
b. 1400 ml
c. 1650 ml
d. 2000 ml

68. The most common cause of cardiac arrest in infants and young children is ______
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Cardiac arrhythmia
c. Respiratory failure
d. Seizure

69. The most severe complication after fracture reduction in children is ______
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Compartment syndrome
c. Nonunion
d. Contracture

70. A child who is on immunosuppressive therapy can take live vaccines after ______ time of stopping of immunosuppressant drugs
a. 1 week
b. 4 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 12 weeks

71. What is asymmetrical enlargement of uterus in lateral implantation called?
a. Hegar’s sign
b. Osiander’s sign
c. Piskacek’s sign
d. Palmer’s sign

72. Which is the major galactokinetic hormone?
a. Prolactin
b. Estrogen
c. Oxytocin
d. Progesterone

73. Where are the thumbs placed during chest compression in newborn?
a. Upper third of sternum
b. Upper half of sternum
c. Lower half of sternum
d. Lower third of sternum

74. Which of the following statements is/are correct about prevention of perineal laceration?
(i) Delivery by early extension of head is avoided
(ii) Deliver head in between contraction
(iii) Spontaneous forcible delivery of head
(iv) All of the above
a. Only (i & ii)
b. Only (ii & iii)
c. Only (i & iii)
d. All of the above

75. What is reduced sperm motility known as?
a. Azoospermia
b. Asthenozoospermia
c. Aspermia
d. Oligospermia

Staff Nurse Exam Answer Key

76. Which of the following can be done during assisted breech delivery?
(i) Never to rush
(ii) Never push from above but pull from below
(iii) Never pull from below but push from above
(iv) All of the above
a. Only (ii & iii)
b. Only (i & ii)
c. Only (i & iii)
d. All of the above

77. Which is the most conclusive clinical sign of pregnancy?
a. Jacquemier’s sign
b. Osiander’s sign
c. Active fetal movement
d. Fetal heart sound

78. Which is the ideal time for episiotomy?
(i) When perineum is bulged and thin
(ii) Just prior to crowning
(iii) During relaxation
(iv) All of the above
a. Only (ii & iii)
b. Only (i & ii)
c. Only (i & iii)
d. All of the above

79. Which of the following is done for management of acute mastitis?
(i) Breast support
(ii) Restriction of oral fluids
(iii) Manual emptying of infected side with each feed
(iv) All of the above
a. Only (i & iii)
b. Only (i & ii)
c. Only (ii & iii)
d. All of the above

80. Which of the following is the immediate complications of pelvic inflammatory disease?
a. Pelvic peritonitis and septicemia
b. Pelvic peritonitis and dyspareunia
c. Infertility and adhesion
d. Infertility and ectopic pregnancy

81. Which among the following is included in Henri Fayol’s 14 principles of management?
a. Motivation
b. Discipline
c. Supervision
d. Communication

82. Which of the following is not an element of management?
a. Planning
b. Staffing
c. Commanding
d. Controlling

83. The period between placing the order and receiving the stores
a. Reorder time
b. Shelf life
c. Economic order of quantity
d. Lead time

84. The nurse-patient ratio of an intensive care unit
a. 1:3
b. 1:1
c. 1:6
d. 1:10

85. The allocation of authority and responsibility to perform a selected task to a competent individual is known as
a. Assignment
b. Transference
c. Delegation
d. Mentoring

86. What is the type of leadership where there is little input from group members?
a. Autocratic
b. Democratic
c. Laissez-faire
d. Participative

87. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a profession?
a. Service orientation
b. Scientific
c. Code of ethics
d. Dependency

88. False written report with an intention of harming the reputation of one person is known as
a. Slander
b. Libel
c. Battery
d. Assault

89. Which ethical principle is followed in telling truth about the disease to a patient?
a. Veracity
b. Confidentiality
c. Fidelity
d. Justice

90. Which type of budget outlines the purchase of large fixed assets?
a. Operating budget
b. Capital budget
c. Personnel budget
d. Revenue budget

91. Who stated that “By education, I mean an overall all-round drawing out of the best in child and man, in body, mind and spirit”
a. Swami Vivekananda
b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. John Dewey
d. Socrates

92. Which teaching method is more effective in teaching procedures in nursing education?
a. Seminar
b. Symposium
c. Lecture
d. Demonstration

93. Which of the following is a small group teaching method?
a. Lecture
b. Panel discussion
c. Seminar
d. Symposium

94. Which of the following is a wrong statement about essay type questions?
a. Test thinking level
b. More coverage of content
c. Easy to construct
d. Scoring is subjective

95. Which of the following is a graphic teaching aid?
a. Chart
b. Flannel board
c. Puppet
d. Model

96. Which of the following is an example of quantitative study?
a. Case study
b. Descriptive
c. Ethnography
d. Grounded theory

97. Which is the most frequently occurring value in a data set?
a. Mean
b. Mode
c. Median
d. Range

98. Which of the following is an example of probability sampling?
a. Purposive
b. Quota
c. Systematic
d. Convenient

99. Which type of variable represents outcome of the intervention in the study?
a. Independent
b. Discrete
c. Extraneous
d. Dependent

100. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?
a. Range
b. Median
c. Standard deviation
d. Quartile deviation

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Obstetrics and Gynecology Nursing Questions and Answers