Kerala CEE MSc. Nursing Entrance 2020 Provisional Answer Key

Kerala CEE MSc. Nursing Entrance 2020 Provisional Answer Key

NB: Some Questions are incomplete due to unavailability, we welcome you if you able to help us; please mail to [email protected]
1:-The placenta is developed from
A:-Epiblast
B:-Hypoblast
C:-Embryoblast
D:-Trophoblast

2:-In fetal circulation connection between the pulmonary artery and descending aorta is
A:-Ductus arteriosus
B:-Ductus venosus
C:-Foramen ovale
D:-Ligamentum arteriosus

3:-The first Leopold maneuver in abdominal palpation of a pregnant women is
A:-Pawlik grip
B:-Pelvic grip
C:-Fundal grip
D:-Lateral grip

4:-Triple test of second trimester fetal screening include all biochemical test EXCEPT
A:-Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein
B:-Unconjugated estriol
C:-Human chorionic gonadotropin
D:-Inhibin – A

5:-Placenta previa is suspected if there is
A:-Bright red vaginal bleeding with abdominal pain
B:-Bright red vaginal bleeding without abdominal pain
C:-Dark colour vaginal bleeding with abdominal pain
D:-Dark colour vaginal bleeding without abdominal pain

6:-The type of miscarriage where the fetus is dead and retained inside the uterus for a variable period
A:-Threatened miscarriage
B:-Complete miscarriage
C:-Silent miscarriage
D:-Inevitable miscarriage

7:-As a nurse what will be your action if a mother complaints of increased urine output on the first postnatal day
A:-Reassure that it is an expected outcome
B:-Restrict the fluid intake
C:-Inform the doctor
D:-Send a midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity

8:-Myasthenia Gravis is due to the
A:-Destruction of acetyl choline esterase receptors
B:-Degeneration of dopamine producing neurons
C:-Disseminated demyelination of nerve fibers
D:-Degeneration of motor neurons

9:-Polyhydramnios is sonographically diagnosed between the gestational age of 28 to 40 weeks by estimating
A:-Ponderal index
B:-Amniotic fluid index
C:-Cephalic index
D:-Pulsatility index

10:-The placental abnormality with increased risk of placental retention is
A:-Battledore placenta
B:-Circumvallate placenta
C:-Placenta marginata
D:-Placenta Succenturiat

11:-If a women is in the first stage of normal labour without any complications, the frequency of recording of fetal heart rate anpartograph is
A:-Every 15 minutes
B:-Every 30 minutes
C:-Every 45 minutes
D:-Every hour

12:-Which among the following statement is TRUE regarding methergine use in labour
A:-It is used for the induction of labour
B:-It is administered immediately after the delivery of the head of the baby
C:-It is used in the management of post partum haemorrhage
D:-It is the drug of choice in women with cardiac diseases

13:-Which among the following is not included as the criteria for the diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome
A:-Oligo or anovulation
B:-Hyper androgenism
C:-Multiple cysts in the ovary
D:-Weight gain

14:-The assisted reproductive technology where spermatozoon is injected directly into the oocyte is
A:-IVF-ET
B:-GIFT
C:-ZIFT
D:-ICSI

15:-Every year Global hand washing day is observed on
A:-10th October
B:-13th October
C:-15th October
D:-24th October

16:-The ideal roller bandage application for the extended joints such as extended elbow
A:-Simple spiral
B:-Reverse spiral
C:-Figure of eight
D:-Divergent spica

17:-First action of a first aider when he reaches near a person with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning
A:-Assess the respiratory status
B:-Start mouth to mouth respiration
C:-Move the victim to a safe place
D:-Start oxygen administration

18:-Inflammation of gums are termed as
A:-Gingivitis
B:-Glossitis
C:-Cheilitis
D:-Stomatitis

19:-The particular manner or style of walking is
A:-Body alignment
B:-Posture
C:-Gait
D:-Range of motion

20:-In postural drainage ‘prone in Trendelenburg’s position with abdomen and thorax is elevated’ is given to drain secretions
A:-Anterior segment of both lower lobes of lungs
B:-Posterior segment of both lower lobes of lungs
C:-Lateral segment of left lower lobe
D:-Lateral segment of right lower lobe

21:-Cyanosis is
A:-An early sign of hypoxia
B:-A late sign of hypoxia
C:-A normal sign in respiratory failure
D:-A reliable measure of oxygenation

22:-Size of the outer diameter of the suction catheter, for endotracheal (ET) suctioning
A:-should not exceed half of the internal diameter of ET tube
B:-should be the smallest available catheter
C:-should be the largest available catheter
D:-should not exceed three fourth of the internal diameter of ET tube

23:-Which among the following is an example of hypertonic intravenous solution
A:-Dextrose normal saline
B:-Ringer’s Lactate
C:-0.9% NaCl
D:-5% Dextrose

24:-Calculate the drop per minute for administering 600ml of intravenous fluid over 8 hours using a drip set, that divides 1ml o
A:-20drops/min
B:-25 drops/min
C:-30drops/min
D:-35 drops/min

25:-The angle of insertion of needle for intra dermal injection
A:-90 degree
B:-60 degree
C:-45 degree
D:-10 degree

26:-The abbreviation used for the medication order ‘whenever there is a need’
A:-ac
B:-pc
C:-prn
D:-stat

27:-One milligram =
A:-1000 microgram
B:-1/1000 microgram
C:-100 microgram
D:-1/100 microgram

28:-Enteric coated tablets are intended to
A:-Absorb in small intestine
B:-Absorb in stomach
C:-Increase the duration of absorption
D:-Absorb only when body require it

29:-Electrolyte imbalance seen in patients receiving frequent salbutamol nebulisation
A:-Hypernatremia
B:-Hyponatremia
C:-Hyperkalemia
D:-Hypokalemia

30:-Size of green coloured IV cannula
A:-16G
B:-18G
C:-20G
D:-22G

31:-Wet to dry dressing is indicated in
A:-Surgical wounds
B:-Wound with granulation tissue
C:-Wound with necrotic tissue
D:-Clean wound of decubitus ulcer

32:-The Braden Scale is composed of all the following EXCEPT
A:-Sensory perception
B:-Oedema
C:-Moisture
D:-Nutrition

33:-Restraints are used to
A:-Prevent bed sore
B:-Prevent injury
C:-Improve the mobility
D:-Improve the functional ability

34:-Type of fever where there is fluctuations in body temperature of more than 2 degree Centigrade , all of which are above n
A:-Intermittent fever
B:-Remittent fever
C:-Relapsing fever
D:-Continuous fever

35:-While monitoring blood pressure if the nurse deflate the cuff too quickly reading will be
A:-Erroneously low systolic and high diastolic reading
B:-Erroneously high systolic and low diastolic reading
C:-Inconsistent
D:-Not affected

36:-Duration of the entire procedure of medical hand washing with soap and water as per WHO guidelines
A:-10-30 Sec
B:-20-30 Sec
C:-20-40 Sec
D:-40-60 Sec

37:-Most common type of health care associated infection is
A:-Catheter associated urinary tract infection
B:-Surgical site infection
C:-Catheter associated blood stream infection
D:-Ventilator associated pneumonia

38:-Normal breath sound heard over trachea
A:-Vesicular
B:-Broncho vesicular
C:-Bronchial
D:-Rhonchi

39:-Which among the following is NOT a cutaneous reflex
A:-Plantar reflex
B:-Patellar reflex
C:-Gluteal reflex
D:-Abdominal reflex

40:-A patient tells the nurse “I have headache and I am nauseated.”This is an example of
A:-Subjective data
B:-Historical data
C:-Objective data
D:-Medical data

41:-Which among the following is NOT applicable to a nurse’s record
A:-It has a legal value
B:-It is accessible to all staff members of hospital
C:-It provide data for research
D:-It is a means of communication between health care team

42:-Black tarry stool is seen in
A:-Upper gastro intestinal bleeding
B:-Lower gastro intestinal bleeding
C:-Colitis
D:-Constipation

43:-Ideal urine specimen for routine urine analysis
A:-First voided specimen in the morning
B:-Midstream specimen
C:-Catheter specimen
D:-Supra pubic specimen

44:-A nurse must suspect delayed gastric emptying if gastric residual volume is
A:-> 50ml
B:->100ml
C:->150ml
D:->200ml

45:-For a patient receiving nasogastric tube feeding, nurse anticipates pulmonary aspiration and formulates a nursing diagno
A:-Actual nursing diagnosis
B:-Risk nursing diagnosis
C:-Health promotion nursing diagnosis
D:-Wellness nursing diagnosis

46:-The nursing theorist who has emphasized the influence of environment in patient care
A:-Hildegard Peplau
B:-Florence Nightingale
C:-Virgenia Henderson
D:-Martha Rogers

47:-Which among the following is an example of expected outcome statement in measurable terms
A:-Patient remains pain free
B:-patient verbalizes less pain
C:-Nurse administer pain medication every 4 hour
D:-Patient reports pain less than 4 on a numeric pain scale

48:-An imaginary plane divides the body into superior and inferior part
A:-Median plane
B:-Sagittal plane
C:-Frontal plane
D:-Transverse plane

49:-Superficial veins of upper limbs are the following EXCEPT
A:-Brachial vein
B:-Basilic vein
C:-Cephalic vein
D:-Median cubital vein

50:-The most proximal part of the large intestine is
A:-Ascending Colon
B:-Caecum
C:-Transverse Colon
D:-Signoid Colon

51:-Largest commissural fiber of cerebrum is
A:-Corona radiata
B:-Internal capsule
C:-Corpus callosum
D:-Superior longitudinal fasciculus

52:-The location of blood brain barrier is considered to be
A:-At the level of brain capillaries
B:-At the level of glia
C:-At the level of axons
D:-At the level of dentrites

53:-Levator Ani muscles are the following EXCEPT
A:-Puborectalis
B:-Pubococcygeous
C:-Piriformis
D:-Iliococcygeous

54:-Receptors provide information about position of body and sense of equilibrium is
A:-Tele receptors
B:-Exteroceptors
C:-Interoceptors
D:-Proprioceptors

55:-Hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland are the following EXCEPT
A:-Growth hormone
B:-Antidiuretic hormone
C:-Thyroid stimulating hormone
D:-Follicle stimulating hormone

56:-Diffusion occurs with the help of carrier molecules without the expenditure of energy is
A:-Simple diffusion
B:-Facilitated diffusion
C:-Endocytosis
D:-Active transport

57:-The net filtration pressure across the glomerular membrane is
A:-10 mmHg
B:-15 mmHg
C:-25 mmHg
D:-35 mmHg

58:-Fat splitting enzyme produced by glands of tongue is
A:-Ptyalin
B:-Salivary amylase
C:-Lingual lipase
D:-Lysozyme

59:-Hamburger shift is seen in
A:-Oxygen transport
B:-CO2 transport
C:-Carbohydrate metabolism
D:-Protein metabolism

60:-Gluconeogenesis is inhibited by
A:-Glucogon
B:-Growth hormone
C:-Insulin
D:-Glucocorticoids

61:-An example of tumour associated antigen(TAA) is
A:-Testis specific antigen(MAGE)
B:-Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
C:-Carcino embryonic antigen(CEA)
D:-Prostate specific antigen(PSA)

62:-Which among the following test is expected by a nurse for a patient receiving parenteral heparin
A:-Activated partial thromboplastin time
B:-Bleeding time
C:-Total platelet count
D:-Prothrombin time

63:-The presence of which antigen indicate that the blood and body fluids of hepatitis B affected individuals are highly infectio
A:-HBsAg
B:-HBeAg
C:-HBcAg
D:-HBV-DNA

64:-Venous emboli are most often lodged in
A:-Intestine
B:-kidneys
C:-Heart
D:-lungs

65:-Negative staining with dyes such as Indian ink is used to demonstrate
A:-Bacterial nucleus
B:-Bacterial capsule
C:-Bacterial cell wall
D:-Bacterial cytoplasm

66:-Presence of which immunoglobulin in serum of newborn indicates congenital infections
A:-IgG
B:-IgA
C:-IgM
D:-IgE

67:-Who was considered as the ‘savior of mothers’ because he concluded that washing the hands in antiseptic solution preve
A:-Louis Pasteur
B:-Joseph Lister
C:-Ignaz Semmelweis
D:-Paul Ehrlich

68:-Chinese letter or cuneiform arrangement of bacilli is the characteristics feature of
A:-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B:-Mycobacterium leprae
C:-Corynebacterium diphtheria
D:-Clostridium tetani

69:-Negri bodies are present in infection with
A:-Rabies virus
B:-Polio virus
C:-Epstein Barr virus
D:-Pox virus

70:-The most common cause of travelers diarrhea is
A:-Shigella
B:-Salmonella
C:-E.coli
D:-Vibrio cholera

71:-An example of high biological value protein food is
A:-Soyabean
B:-Egg
C:-Green gram
D:-Groundnut

72:-DASH diet is used in the prevention and management of
A:-Hypertension
B:-Diabetes mellitus
C:-Liver cirrhosis
D:-Peptic ulcer

73:-An example of essential fatty acid is
A:-Linoleic acid
B:-Aspartic acid
C:-Leucine
D:-Lysine

74:-Vitamin deficiency seen in pure vegetarians as this vitamin is present only in foods of animal origin
A:-Vitamin B1
B:-Folic Acid
C:-Vitamin B6
D:-Vitamin B12

75:-Complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose yields
A:-12ATPs
B:-24ATPs
C:-32ATPs
D:-129ATPs

76:-The key enzyme in fatty acid synthesis is
A:-Beta hydroxyacyl dehydrate
B:-Acetyl CoA carboxylase
C:-Enoyl reductase
D:-Acetyl transacylase

77:-Ammonia is formed with the help of all the following EXCEPT
A:-Trans aminase
B:-Glutamate dehydrogenase
C:-Aminoacid oxidase
D:-Threonine dehydratase

78:-Which among the following indicate an abnormal renal function test
A:-Blood urea 30mg/dl
B:-GFR 125ml/min
C:-S.Creatinine 8mg/dl
D:-Urine pH 6.8

79:-Pharmacodynamics means the mechanism of
A:-Drug action
B:-Drug absorption
C:-Drug distribution
D:-Drug excretion

80:-The most important vital sign monitoring for a patient receiving opioid analgesic such as morphine is
A:-Temperature
B:-Pulse
C:-Respiration
D:-Blood pressure

81:-The drug contraindicated in absence seizures is
A:-Ethosuximide
B:-Phenobarbital
C:-Valproic acid
D:-Carbamazepine

82:-The most common adverse effect of pantoprazole is
A:-Vomiting
B:-Headache
C:-Parasthesia
D:-Constipation

83:-The calcium channel blocker most likely to suppress the tachyarrhythmias involving A-V node is
A:-Verapamil
B:-Nifedipine
C:-Amlodipine
D:-Nicardipine

84:-The primary goal of glucocorticoid treatment in rheumatoid arthritis is
A:-Reversal of the degenerative process
B:-Suppression of inflammation
C:-Development of a sense of well being
D:-Eradication of all symptoms

85:-A patient is receiving aminoglycoside for 10 days. Nurse should monitor the patient for
A:-Hepatotoxicity
B:-Symptoms of gastric irritation
C:-Nephrotoxicity
D:-Visual disturbances

86:-The researcher want to generalize the study findings to
A:-Target population
B:-Accessible population
C:-Sample
D:-Individuals

87:-Which among the following is NOT a probability sampling technique
A:-Systematic sampling
B:-Stratified sampling
C:-Quota sampling
D:-Cluster sampling

88:-Which among the following is a measure of dispersion
A:-Arithmetic mean
B:-Geometric mean
C:-Standard deviation
D:-Median

89:-Nurse monitor a patient during the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury for all the following EXCEPT
A:-Seizures
B:-Hypokalemia
C:-Metabolic acidosis
D:-Azotemia

90:-In a research study the effectiveness of weekly iron and folic acid supplementation on haemoglobin values of adolescent
example of
A:-Extraneous variable
B:-Confounding variable
C:-Dependent variable
D:-Independent variable

91:-One should ensure the following for an informed consent EXCEPT
A:-Competence of the researcher
B:-Voluntary participation
C:-Comprehension
D:-Information

92:-Nurses responsibility while caring a patient during and after barium swallow include the following EXCEPT
A:-Administer laxatives and enema in the evening before procedures
B:-NPO for 8 to 12 hours before procedures
C:-Avoid smoking
D:-Increase fluid intake after the study

93:-Cost related to loss of work due to illness and hospitalization is termed as
A:-Direct cost
B:-Indirect cost
C:-Intangible cost
D:-Fixed cost

94:-The revolutionary women and child health campaign GOBI-FFF is formulated by
A:-WHO
B:-UNICEF
C:-UNESCO
D:-USAID

95:-Antituberculosis drugs used in the continuation phase of daily dose regimen for drug sensitive new cases are the followin
A:-Rifampicin
B:-INH
C:-Ethambutol
D:-Pyrazinamide

96:-A project offering free treatment for all children (below 18 years of age) in Kerala irrespective of their income status is
A:-Arogya kiranam
B:-Amrutham
C:-Aardram
D:-Aswamedham

97:-The age of administration of inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)
A:-6 weeks & 10 weeks
B:-10 weeks & 14 weeks
C:-6 weeks & 14 weeks
D:-9 months

98:-The route of administration of measles vaccine
A:-Intra dermal
B:-Intra muscular
C:-Subcutaneous
D:-Oral

99:-The most common side effect of intra uterine devices
A:-Expulsion
B:-Pain
C:-Pelvic inflammatory diseases
D:-Increased vaginal bleeding

100:-The women help line number of government of Kerala
A:-1070
B:-1091
C:-1090
D:-1098

101:-The number of death from a specific disease during a specific time period divided by total number of cases of that disea
A:-Case fatality rate
B:-Crude death rate
C:-Specific death rate
D:-Disease specific mortality rate

102:-The method of cleaning the rapid sand filter is
A:-Filter cleaning
B:-Filter control
C:-Back washing
D:-Flocculation

103:-The major signs included in the surveillance of AIDS include the following EXCEPT
A:-Chronic diarrhea for more than 1 month
B:-Weight loss of ≥10% of body weight
C:-Prolonged fever more than 1 month
D:-Persistent cough for more than 1 month

104:-In usual situation MTP act allows termination of pregnancy
A:-At any time
B:-Up to 20 weeks
C:-Up to 24 weeks
D:-Up to 28 weeks

105:-Conducting medical camp for pap smear screening for carcinoma cervix is an example of
A:-Primary prevention
B:-Secondary prevention
C:-Tertiary prevention
D:-It is not a preventive strategy

106:-Observational study where the population is studied at one point in time is
A:-Cross sectional study
B:-Longitudinal study
C:-Case control study
D:-Cohort study

107:-An example of food and water borne disease is
A:-Diphtheria
B:-Hepatitis A
C:-Hepatitis B
D:-Hepatitis C

108:-The time period during which an infectious agent may be transferred directly or indirectly from an infected person to ano
A:-Serial interval
B:-Generation time
C:-Period of communicability
D:-Incubation period

109:-Modifiable risk factor for hypertension
A:-Age
B:-Sex
C:-Ethinicity
D:-Obesity

110:-The method of prevention and control of air pollution where toxic substances are prevented from escaping into the ambi
A:-Dilution
B:-Legislation
C:-Containement
D:-Replacement

111:-Swollen bleeding gums are due to the deficiency of
A:-Vitamin C
B:-Vitamin K
C:-Vitamin A
D:-Vitamin E

112:-Every subordinate must receive orders and instructions and be accountable to only one superior. This principle of manag
A:-Unity of command
B:-Unity of direction
C:-Scalar chain of command
D:-Centralisation

113:-Structure, process, outcome model of quality assurance is popularly known as
A:-Wilson’s model
B:-Quality health outcome model
C:-Donabedian model
D:-Quality management model

114:-The organization structure where the authority flows from top to bottom in a step by step manner
A:-Divisional organization structure
B:-Matrix organization structure
C:-Line organization structure
D:-Functional organization structure

115:-The systematic review of records of nursing actions in order to evaluate the quality of nursing care by comparing the evi
A:-Accreditation
B:-Nursing standards
C:-Nursing audit
D:-Quality control

116:-Method of patient assignment where the nurse assumes twenty four hour period responsibility for planning the care of o
till discharge is
A:-Case Method
B:-Functional Method
C:-Team Method
D:-Primary Nursing

117:-Assigning the new employee to an appropriate position is
A:-Recruitment
B:-Selection
C:-Placement
D:-Induction

118:-The student patient ratio to be maintained for providing effective clinical training for students is
A:-1:2
B:-1:3
C:-1:4
D:-1:5

119:-The trained nurses association was established in
A:-1904
B:-1908
C:-1918
D:-1914

120:-Father of idealism
A:-Plato
B:-J.S. Rose
C:-Aristotle
D:-Rousseau

121:-Highest level of psychomotor domain of educational objective
A:-Mechanism
B:-Adaptation
C:-Guided response
D:-Origination

122:-Behavioural objective model of curriculum was developed by
A:-Beattie
B:-Lawrence Stenhouse
C:-Ralph Tyler
D:-Bloom

123:-The curriculum that is agreed by faculty either implicitly or explicitly
A:-Hidden curriculum
B:-Illegitimate curriculum
C:-Legitimate curriculum
D:-Null curriculum

124:-The type of learning in which acquisition of a series of related conditioned responses occur
A:-Signal learning
B:-Chaining
C:-Stimulus response learning
D:-Verbal association

125:-The factual description of meaningful incidents and events of the students observed by teacher
A:-Anecdotal records
B:-Checklist
C:-Rating scale
D:-Cumulative records

126:-Ideal teaching method for exploring the issues involved in social situation or challenges in human relations
A:-Demonstration
B:-Lecture
C:-Role play
D:-Symposium

127:-Chart that used to represent the family history of diseases
A:-Flow chart
B:-Cartogram
C:-Tree chart
D:-Pedigree chart

128:-Characteristics of an out-group include
A:-Small size
B:-Hostile feeling
C:-Common interest
D:-Group welfare

129:-Characteristics of competition include all the following EXCEPT
A:-It is continuous
B:-It observes social laws
C:-It deals with individual
D:-It is unconscious

130:-Informal rules that govern behaviour in groups and societies
A:-Norms
B:-Roles
C:-Morale
D:-Culture

131:-The process in which the child becomes socialized through the family in early childhood years is
A:-Pre socialization
B:-Primary socialization
C:-Secondary socialization
D:-Not a process of socialization

132:-The rule that one must marry within one’s own caste system is
A:-Hypogamy
B:-Endogamy
C:-Exogamy
D:-Hypergamy

133:-An industrial society is marked by
A:-Social mobility
B:-Ascribed status
C:-Caste system
D:-primary relationship

134:-Role of pediatric nurse in minimizing loss of control in a hospitalized child include all the following EXCEPT
A:-Establishing daily schedule in hospital
B:-Promoting freedom of movement
C:-Encourage self care activities within the limits of child
D:-Helping children to maintain their usual contact

135:-A form of play in which children play adjacent to each other but do not influence the play of other children
A:-Solitary play
B:-Onlooker play
C:-Parallel play
D:-Dramatic play

136:-Calculate the drug dose in millilitre (ml), if there is an order to administer 300mg of paracetamol syrup to a child. The av
250mg/5ml
A:-4ml
B:-4.5ml
C:-6ml
D:-6.5ml

137:-The weight of a child is 84% of expected weight. As per IAP classification, the grade of protein energy(PEM) malnutrion
A:-No PEM
B:-Grade I
C:-Grade II
D:-Grade III

138:-The ideal site of administration of intramuscular injection in children less than 18 months of age
A:-Rectus femoris
B:-Deltoid
C:-Dorsogluteal
D:-Vastus lateralis

139:-Frequency of breast feeding for a normal new born
A:-Demand feeding
B:-Every 30 minutes
C:-Every hour
D:-Every 2 hours

140:-A danger sign that a nurse should report while caring new born babies in post natal wards
A:-Multiple pearly white papule on face
B:-Scattered maculo papular rashes on the trunk, face and extremities
C:-Pigmented grayish blue lesions over the sacral region
D:-Yellowish discolouration extending up to palms and soles

141:-While caring a low birth weight baby weighing less than 2 kg the nurse should do all the following EXCEPT
A:-Encourage kangaroo mother care
B:-Weigh the baby daily
C:-Bath the baby daily
D:-Monitor vital signs 4th hourly

142:-Sign of respiratory distress in a newborn is
A:-Heart rate 130 beats/min
B:-Expiratory grunt
C:-Respiratory rate 40 breaths/ min
D:-Peripheral cyanosis

143:-The most accurate method of calculating the percentage of burned surface area in children
A:-Modified rule of nine
B:-Palm method
C:-Lund & Browder chart
D:-Rule of three

144:-In addition to ORS child with diarrhea in plan B should receive
A:-Intravenous fluids
B:-Antimotility drug like loperamide
C:-Antisecretory drug like racecadotril
D:-Zinc supplements

145:-Congenital cardiac anomaly causes right to left shunt of blood is
A:-Tetralogy of Fallot
B:-Coarctation of aorta
C:-Ventricular septal defect
D:-Patent ductus arteriosus

146:-Example of an autosomal recessive disorder is
A:-Turner syndrome
B:-Marfan syndrome
C:-Cystic fibrosis
D:-Hemophilia

147:-Massive proteinuria is commonly associated with
A:-Acute glomerulonephritis
B:-Acute renal failure
C:-Nephrotic syndrome
D:-Hydronephrosis

148:-Young child with intermittent, crampy abdominal pain and ‘currant jelly stool is the characteristic feature of
A:-Hirschprung’s disease
B:-Intussusception
C:-Malrotation
D:-Volvulus

149:-The nurses action during accidental removal of nasogastric tube in a child who had undergone tracheo-oesophageal fist
A:-Reinsert and aspirate the tube to confirm position
B:-Reinsert and inform the pediatric surgeon
C:-Reinsert and record the procedure in nurses record
D:-Do not reinsert and inform the pediatric surgeon

150:-The most common acid base imbalance associated with renal failure
A:-Respiratory acidosis
B:-Metabolic acidosis
C:-Respiratory alkalosis
D:-Metabolic alkalosis

151:-Which among the following is NOT a manifestation of dehydration
A:-Slow bounding pulse
B:-Poor skin stinger
C:-Sunken soft eye balls
D:-Postural hypotension

152:-The abnormal breathing pattern in patients with diabetic keto acidosis
A:-Kussmaul’s respiration
B:-Cheyne-stokes respiration
C:-Biot’s respiration
D:-Apneustic respiration

153:-Butterfly shaped rashes of malar region of the face characterized by erythema and edema is a clinical manifestation in
A:-Rheumatoid arthritis
B:-Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
C:-Systemic sclerosis
D:-Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

154:-A patient attending the endocrine clinic present with weight gain, cold intolerance, dry thick skin and fatigue the nurse sh
A:-Hyper thyroidism
B:-Hypothyroidism
C:-Hyper parathyroidism
D:-Hypo parathyroidism

155:-Dietary modification for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy is diet with
A:-Low carbohydrate
B:-High protein
C:-Low protein
D:-High fat

156:-The most serious type of skin cancer is
A:-Basal cell carcinoma
B:-Squamous cell carcinoma
C:-Sarcoma
D:-Melanoma

157:-Which of the following medical order is expected for reducing fluid volume excess
A:-Low sodium diet
B:-Daily serum electrolytes
C:-Monitor intake output
D:-Elevation of foot end

158:-Which of the following is an early indicator of deterioration of patient’s neurological status
A:-Widening pulse pressure
B:-Decreased pulse rate
C:-Dilated fixed pupil
D:-Decrease in level of consciousness

159:-ECG changes due hyperkalemia is
A:-Tall peaked T wave
B:-Prominent U wave
C:-Widened QRS complex
D:-Prominent P wave

160:-A chronic respiratory disorder where one or more bronchi are permanently dilated
A:-Atelectasis
B:-Bronchiectasis
C:-Bronchitis
D:-Bronchial asthma

161:-A patient with appendicitis is at risk of developing
A:-Haemorrhage
B:-Pulmonary edema
C:-Peritonitis
D:-Bowel obstruction

162:-A patient describes his symptoms as light flashes, floaters, and ring in the field of vision. This is due to
A:-Detaching retina
B:-Glaucoma
C:-Cataract
D:-Keratitis

163:-Immediately after TURP, the continuous bladder irrigation out flow appears to be
A:-Clear
B:-Dark red
C:-Light pink
D:-Bright red

164:-While doing Rinne test for a patient the bone conduction is found to be better than air conduction. The nurse understand
A:-Conductive deafness
B:-Sensory neural deafness
C:-No deafness
D:-Mixed deafness

165:-A 30 years old man receives multiple blood transfusions after a major abdominal surgery. He complains of numbness ar
and positive chvostek sign. The treatment required is, intravenous administration of
A:-Bicarbonate
B:-Potassium
C:-Calcium
D:-Sodium Chloride

166:-The correct action that a patient with blunt chest injury performs while using an incentive spirometer is
A:-Exhales normally
B:-Takes rapid shallow breaths
C:-Seals the mouth piece during exhalation
D:-Tilts the incentive spirometer

167:-Which of the following symptom would be indicative of dumping syndrome
A:-Hunger
B:-Diaphoresis
C:-Vomiting
D:-Heart burn

168:-When assessing for common clinical manifestation of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), the nurse should observe the client f
A:-Absence of pulse distal to the clot
B:-Cyanosis distal to the clot
C:-Pain on dorsi flexion of foot
D:-Reddened area around the clot

169:-A 17 years old male is admitted following an automobile accident. He is very anxious, dyspnoeic and has severe pain. T
inspiration and balloons out when he exhales. These symptoms are suggestive of
A:-Hemothorax
B:-Flail chest
C:-Atelectasis
D:-Pleural effusion

170:- A 20 years old boy is admitted to the neurosurgery ward with a head injury. He opens his eyes to painful stimuli, His verbal response is flexion to pain. His Glasgow coma score would be
A:-3
B:-6
C:-9
D:-12

171:-What is the most lethal complication after myocardial infarction
A:-Cardiogenic shock
B:-Ventricular dysrthymia
C:-Pulmonary embolism
D:-Cardiac tamponade

172:-Which type of seizure is frequently preceded by an aura
A:-Jacksonian (focal motor)
B:-Petitmal (absence)
C:-Grandmal (tonic clonic)
D:-Myoclonic

173:-What should be the depth of chest compression during adult Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation
A:-0.5-1 inch
B:-1-1.5 inches
C:-1.5-2 inches
D:-2-2.4 inches

174:-Which of the following complication is associated with mechanical ventilation
A:-Gastro intestinal bleeding
B:-Immuno suppression
C:-Increased cardiac output
D:-Pulmonary embolism

175:-A chronic auto immune disorder affecting the neuromuscular transmission of impulse in the voluntary muscles of the bod
A:-Guillian barre syndrome
B:-Myasthenia gravis
C:-Multiple sclerosis
D:-Muscular dystrophy

176:- A client is admitted with tetraplegia after a fall. The nurse should suspect the injury to which level of the spinal cord
A:-Cervical
B:-Thoracic
C:-Lumbar
D:-Sacral

177:-A common cause for airway obstruction in an unconscious patient is falling back of tongue. It is managed by
A:-Maintaining supine position
B:-Endotracheal intubation
C:-Placing oropharyngeal airway
D:-Oropharyngeal suctioning

178:-A 57 years old obese man has gastro esophageal reflux disease (GERD) .Endoscopic evaluation reveals evidence of B
dysplasia. What is the recommended management for this disease
A:-Endoscopy every 3 years
B:-Annual endoscopy
C:-Mucosal resection or endoscopic ablation therapy
D:-Endoscopy every 6 months

179:-The neurotransmitter believed to be decreased in cognitive disorder such as Alzheimer’s disease
A:-GABA
B:-Dopamine
C:-Serotonin
D:-Acetylcholine

180:-The mode of ventilation which allows the patient to breathe at his or her own respiratory rate and depth between the ven
A:-Controlled Mandatory Ventilation (CMV)
B:-SIMV
C:-Assist Control Mode
D:-Pressure control mode

181:-Who wrote the book ‘Interpersonal Relations in Nursing’
A:-Linda Richards
B:-Virginia Henderson
C:-Hildegard Peplau
D:-Callista Roy

182:-The type of hallucination which accompanies a provoking stimulus and both are perceived simultaneously
A:-Functional hallucination
B:-Reflex hallucination
C:-Extracampine hallucination
D:-Panoramic hallucination

183:-The ‘development and advancement of object permanence’ in a child is explained by
A:-Psycho Sexual theory
B:-Psycho Social theory
C:-Cognitive developmental theory
D:-Moral developmental theory

184:-The branch of psychology which deals with the processes of sensing, perceiving, learning and thinking
A:-School psychology
B:-Evolutionary psychology
C:-Experimental psychology
D:-Cognitive psychology

185:-Neurotransmitter predominantly important in the pathology and management of anxiety disorders
A:-Dopamine
B:-Serotonin
C:-GABA
D:-Glutamate

186:-The side effect of antipsychotics associated with increased level of Creatinine PhosphoKinase (CPK)
A:-Akathisia
B:-Dystonia
C:-Tardive dyskinesia
D:-Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

187:-Which among the following is a therapeutic impasse
A:-Transference
B:-Theme identification
C:-Humor
D:-Silence

188:-The concept of therapeutic community was developed by
A:-Benjamin Rush
B:-Sullivan
C:-Maxwell Jones
D:-Philip Pinel

189:-Amount of electric current applied during ECT is
A:-60- 70 volts
B:-50-80 volts
C:-70 – 120 volts
D:-140-160 volts

190:-Which among the following is the Schneiders First Rank Symptom of Schizophrenia
A:-Delusion
B:-Somatic passivity
C:-Ambivalence
D:-Asociality

191:-Disorder characterised by hyper arousal, flashbacks, emotional numbness following disasters
A: Phobia
B:-Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
C:-Acute Stress Reaction
D:-Adjustment disorder

192:-Drug used to improve the cognitive function in patients with Alzheimers disease
A:-Ritalin
B:-Risperidone
C:-Donepezil
D:-Oxetol

193:-Part of brain responsible for speech production and articulation
A: Broca’s area
B: Wernicke’s area
C:-Prefrontal area
D:-Primary motor cortex

194:-Two factor theory of intelligence was developed by
A:-Howard Gardner
B:-Stanford Binet
C:-Robert Sternberg
D:-Charles Spearman

195:-The type of learning in which a neutral stimulus brings about a response after it is paired with natural stimulus
A:-Classical conditioning
B:-Operant conditioning
C:-Trial and Error learning
D:-Insightful learning

196:-Projective technique used for the assessment of personality
A:-WAIS
B:-TAT
C:-MMPI
D:-MMSE

197:-Mild depression that lasts for at least 2 years is termed as
A:-Dysthymia
B:-Cyclothymia
C:-Euthymia
D:-Parathymia

198:-The form of behaviour therapy in which the patient is directly exposed to phobic stimuli and escape is made impossible
A:-Aversion therapy
B:-Systematic desensitization
C:-Token economy
D:-Flooding

199:-The drug of choice for Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
A:-Risperidone
B:-Ritalin
C:-Donepezil
D:-Oxetol

200:-World Mental Health day theme for the year 2020 is
A:-Young people and mental health in a changing world
B:-Mental health for all: Greater investment – Greater access
C:-Mental health in the workplace
D:-Mental Health promotion and suicide prevention


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