Infection Control Nursing Quiz Questions- 2

1. If the infectious disease can be transmitted directly from one person to another, It is?

a). Susceptible host.
b). Communicable disease.
c). Portal of entry.
d). Portal of exit.
Correct answer!

2. The single most effective means of preventing health care associated infection in the hospital?

a). Periodic fumigation.
b). Prophylactic antibiotic therapy.
c). Use of personal protective equipment.
d). Hand hygiene.
Correct answer!

3. When a nurse is performing surgical hand asepsis, the nurse must keep hands?

a). Below elbows.
b). Above elbows.
c). At a 45 degree angle.
d). In a comfortable position.
Correct answer!

4. The four body fluids that have been implicated in the transmission of H.I.V are?

a). Blood, saliva, urine, sweat.
b). Tears, saliva, urine, sweat.
c). Blood, semen, vaginal fluid, breast milk.
d). Urine, semen, vaginal fluid, breast milk.
Correct answer!

5. To sterilize surgical instruments and surgical dressings?

a). An autoclave is used.
b). Soap and water is used.
c). Ethylene oxide gas is used.
d). Chemicals are used for disinfection.
Correct answer!

6. Hospital acquired U.T.I are often related to poor hand washing and?

a). Poor urinary output.
b). Poor perineal hygiene.
c). Urinary drainage bags.
d). Improper catheter care.
Correct answer!

7. Maintaining a Foley’s catheter drainage bag in the dependent position prevents?

a). Urinary reflux.
b). Urinary retention.
c). Reflex incontinence.
d). Urinary incontinence.
Correct answer!

8. The urine appears concentrated and cloudy because of the presence of white blood cells or?

a). Red blood cells.
b). Bacteria.
c). Urea.
d). Bilirubin.
Correct answer!

9. All of these are common indication for indwelling urinary catheters in healthcare settings except?

a). Urethral or pelvic floor trauma.
b). Palliative care during end of life.
c). Management of urinary retention.
d). Prevention of wound deterioration due to urinary incontinence.
Correct answer!

10. Which of the following is the most prevalent risk factor in the development of catheter associated urinary tract infection?

a). Female gender.
b). Increasing age.
c). Prolonged catheterization.
d). Catheter care violation.
Correct answer!

11. Ventilator associated pneumonia is defined as pneumonia that develops?

a). After five days of intubation and ventilation.
b). After 48 hours of intubation and ventilation.
c). Anytime after intubation.
d). None of these.
Correct answer!

12. When obtaining a wound culture to determine the presence of a wound infection, the specimen should to be taken from the?

a). Necrotic tissue.
b). Wound drainage.
c). Drainage on the dressing.
d). Wound after it has first been cleansed with normal saline.
Correct answer!

13. Maintaining normal glucose levels in the postoperative period reduces which complication?

a). Ileus.
b). Bleeding.
c). Wound infection.
d). Deep vein thrombosis.
Correct answer!

14. 10. The priority when providing oral hygiene to an unconscious client is to prevent?

a). Aspiration.
b). Mouth odor.
c). Dental caries.
d). Mouth ulceration.
Correct answer!

15. If a client who is receiving IV fluids develops tenderness, warmth, erythema, and pain at the site, the nurse suspects?

a). Sepsis.
b). Phlebitis.
c). Infiltration.
d). Fluid overload.
Correct answer!

16. Chemical sterilant used for low temperature plasma sterilization?

a). Silver nitrate.
b). Ethylene Oxide.
c). Formaldehyde.
d). Hydrogen Peroxide.
Correct answer!

17. What is the maximum length of time the nurse allows an IV bag of saline to infuse into patient?

a). 6 hours.
b). 12 hours.
c). 18 hours.
d). 24 hours.
Correct answer!

18. Infectious diseases such as hepatitis B or C become a reservoir for pathogens in?

a). Blood.
b). The urinary tract.
c). The respiratory tract.
d). The reproductive tract.
Correct answer!

19. Methicillin-Resistant Staph. Aureus(MRSA) is responsible for?

a). Aspiration pneumonia.
b). Hospital acquired pneumonia.
c). Commonly acquired pneumonia.
d). Opportunistic pneumonia.
Correct answer!

20. The commonest route of transmission of MRSA is?

a). Sharing of instruments.
b). Re-use of disposable items.
c).Blood transfusion.
d). Hand carriage.
Correct answer!

21. Ideal position to prevent aspiration during nasogastric tube feeding?

a). Side lying position.
b). Head end elevation at 30 degree.
c). Head down position.
d). Supine position.
Correct answer!

22. Antibiotic prophylaxis before surgery is to be administered?

a). 120 minutes before incision.
b). 60 minutes prior to incision.
c). Just before incision.
d). 120 minutes prior to shifting the patient to OT.
Correct answer!

23. To achieve high level disinfection in 2% gluteraldehyde, soak an instrument for?

a). 30 minutes.
b). 20 minutes.
c). 15 minutes.
d). One hour.
Correct answer!

24. Most important step in clinical area waste management is?

a). Segregation.
b). Transportation.
c). Storage.
d). Labeling.
Correct answer!

25. Ventilator associated pneumonia prevention bundle includes all, except?

a). Semi recumbent position.
b). Prophylactic antibiotic therapy.
c). Daily sedation vacation.
d). Frequent drainage of subglottic secretion.
Correct answer!

1. The purpose of assisting clients with daily hygienic care is to?
a. Prevent infection, enhance self esteem, promote relaxation
b. Prevent odors in the facility
c. Ensures that clients are clean and dry
d. Prevent pressure ulcers and contractures from developing

2. Capacity of a microbe to cause disease is known as?
a. Pathogenicity
b. Virulence
c. Infection
d. Immunity

3. A structure which is in dermis layer of skin is?
a. Papillae
b. Subcutaneous
c. Sweat glands
d. Melanin

4. Positron Emission Tomography is a?
a. Neurophysiological test
b. Neuro-endocrine test
c. Electrophysiological test
d. Brain imaging test

5. Who developed the method of pasteurization to prevent spoilage of food by bacteria?
a. Edward Jenner
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch
d.Joseph Lister

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