AIIMS Question Paper – AIIMS Important Questions

AIIMS Question Paper – AIIMS Important Questions

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Total Quiz Questions=50
Mark/Question= 5
Total Marks=250



1. Master gland of human body?
a. Pineal gland
b. Liver
c. Pituitary gland
d. Heart

2. CSF is produced by?
a. Sella turcica
b. Choroid plexus
c. Foramen munro
d. Aqueduct of sylvius

3. Broca’s area is located in?
a. Temporal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Parietal lobe
d. Occipital lobe

4. Area of receptive speech is located in?
a. Frontal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Temporal lobe
d. Occipital lobe

5. Myasthenia Gravis is diagnosed by?
a. Rothera’s test
b. Tensilon test
c. Edrophonium hydrochloride test
d. both b and c

6. A bruice over the mastoid process in skull fracture is?
a. Spalding sign
b. Battle sign
c. Homan sign
d. Cullen’s sign

7. Cob – Web appearance of CSF indicate?
a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Viral meningitis
c. TB meningitis
d. Encephalitis

8. Which of the following is not a sign of meningeal irritation?
a. Nuchal rigidity
b. Kerning’s sign
c. Brudzinski’s sign
d. Chvostek sign

9. Which of the following method is adopted for opening the airway is suspected spinal cord injury?
a. Head tilt method
b. Chin lift method
c. Jaw thrust method
d. Helmich method

10. Which of the following is the nonmodifiable risk factor of CVA?
a. Hypertension
b. Smoking
c. Alcoholism
d. Hereditary

11. In which of the following electrolyte imbalance is seen in SIADH?
a. Hypernatremia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Dilutional hyponatremia

12. Which of the diet can be first prescribed for acute CVA patient?
a. Full liquid diet
b. Soft diet
c. Solid diet
d. Clear fluids

13. When providing oral hygien to an unconscious patient, care must be taken?
a. Infection
b. Gum bleeding
c. Oral injury
d. Aspiration

14. What technique of assessment helps to determine ketoacidosis?
a. Inspection
b. Palpation
c. Auscultation
d. Olfaction

15. Which of the organism causes peptic ulcer disease?
a. Staphylococcus
b. Coryne bacterium
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Streptococcus

16. Which of the following coagulation study is done for one patient on heparin?
a. PT
b. INR
c. aPTT
d. Christmas Factor

17. Patient had a history of chest pain 2 weeks back. Which of the following cardiac marker can be evaluated?
a. Trop T
b. Trop I
c. CKMB
d. Myoglobin

18. Pulsus Paradoxus seen in all except?
a. Cor pulmonale
b. Acute asthma
c. SVC obstruction
d. Mitral regurgitation

19. Most common heart valve involved in IV drug user is?
a. Mitral valve
b. Aortic valve
c. Pulmonic valve
d. Tricuspid valve

20. Excessive alcohol use while on warfarin therapy leads to?
a. Decreased anticoagulation effect
b. Decreased international normalized ratio
c. Increased anticoagulation effect
d. Increased Vitamin K Absorption

21. Early warning symptom of laryngeal cancer?
a. Dysphagia
b. Hoarsness
c. Airway obstruction
d. Stomatitis

22. Crackles is seen in?
a. Emphysema
b. Hypoventilation
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Asthma

23. Which of the following assessment finding is observed in pneumothorax?
a. Purulent sputum
b. Crackles
c. Wheezing
d. Diminished breath sound

24. Nursing management of a client after IVP?
a. Maintain bed rest
b. Encourage fluid intake
c. Assessing for hematuria
d. Administer laxative

25. Which is a urinary tract analgesic?
a. Nalidixic acid
b. Urispas
c. Oxybutinin
d. Flavoxate

26. Which of the following solution is useful to control odour in the urobag?
a. Salt water
b. Vinegar
c. Ammonia
d. Bleach

27. Which of the following abnormal blood values would not be improved by dialysis treatment?
a. Elevatad Serum creatinine
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Decreased hemoglobin
d. Hypernatremia

28. Nephroptosis is commonly called?
a. Dropped kidney
b. Polycystic kidney
c. Nephrolithotomy
d. Renal transplantation

29. The most commonest type of renal stone?
a. Calcium oxalate
b. Calcium phosphate
c. Struvite stones
d. Uric acid stones

30. Which of the following sign is most significant for a patient received after a immediate TURP intervention?
a. Haematuria
b. Confusion
c. Pain
d. Anxiety

31. Most common site of metastasis from Wilm’s tumour?
a. Lung
b. Liver
c. Bone
d. Lymph node

32. Which of the following laboratory test best evaluates the kidney’s ability to regulate fluid balance?
a. Urine specific gravity
b. Blood urea nitrogen
c. Creatinine clearance
d. Urinary protein

33. The largest salivary gland is?
a. Parotid gland
b. Submandibular gland
c. Sublingual gland
d. Palatal gland

34. Laboratory value expected in liver failure is?
a. Decreased creatinine
b. Decreased sodium
c. Increased ammonia
d. Increased calcium

35. Telescopic appearance of the intestine is seen in?
a. Hernia
b. Volvulus
c. Intususception
d. Diverticula

36. Most probable reason for massive rectal bleeding in 70 year old patient is?
a. Haemorrhoid rupture
b. Carcinoma colon
c. Colitis
d. Polyps

37. What is the most common malignant tumor of the GI Tract?
a. Esophageal carcinoma
b. Stomach carcinoma
c. Colonic Carcinoma
d. Anorectal carcinoma

38. Which is a most sensitive measure of thyroid function?
a. Thyroid stimulating hormone
b. Free T4
c. Free T3
d. All

39. Which of the following is not included as the symptom of hypoglycemia?
a. Dry lips
b. Blurred vision
c. Shakiness
d. Fruity breath odour

40. Diabetes Insipidus results from?
a. Hyper secretion of insulin
b. Hypo secretion of insulin
c. Hyper secretion of ADH
d. Hypo secretion of ADH

41. What is the golden rule of first line management of fracture?
a. Apply cold
b. Splinting
c. Rest
d. Raise the limb

42. Which one of the following action has the first priority if a client develops fat embolism?
a. Monitor vital signs
b. Administer IV fluids
c. Administer oxygen
d. All

43. Which of the following food can be suggested for gout?
a. Organ meats
b. Aged cheese
c. Milk
d. Wines

44. Which of the following term refers to the fungal infection of the foot?
a. Tinea corporis
b. Tinea pedis
c. Tinea capitus
d. Tinea curis

45. Elevatad thick walled lesion containing fluid or semi-solid matter is called?
a. Cyst
b. Vesicle
c. Wheal
d. Bullae

46. In chemotherapy, consolidation therapy means?
a. Aimed at achieving rapid complete remission of all manifestations of disease
b. Administered early in remission with the aim of cure
c. To maintain remission
d. None of these

47. Spontaneous bleeding occurs when platelet count less than?
a. 1 lakh
b. 20,000/mm3
c. 80,000/mm3
d. 70,000/mm3

48. Malignant hyperthermia is best treated with?
a. Dantrolene sodium
b. Potassium chloride
c. Atropine
d. Corticosteroids

49. Which is termed as poor man’s milk?
a. Soya milk
b. Ragi
c. Wheat
d. Rice water

50. All of the following are needed for strong bones, Except?
a. Thiamine
b. Calcium
c. Magnesium
d. Vitamin D

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