Table of Contents
AIIMS Nursing Question Paper and Answers
1. Which of the following is a potential complication of a central venous catheter?
a. Hypertension
b. Hypotension
c. Infection
d. Dehydration
2. What is the primary purpose of a hospital information system (HIS)?
a. To provide medical treatment to patients
b. To store and manage patient information
c. To manage hospital finances
d. To manage hospital staff schedules
3. What is the primary purpose of a bronchoscope?
a. To view the inside of the bladder
b. To view the inside of the lungs
c. To view the inside of the stomach
d. To view the inside of the heart
4. What is the primary purpose of haemodialysis?
a. To remove excess fluids from the body
b. To remove waste products from the blood
c. To increase the production of red blood cells
d. To decrease the production of white blood cells
5. What is the primary purpose of a defibrillator?
a. To increase blood flow to the heart
b. To decrease blood pressure
c. To regulate the heart rhythm
d. To treat anaemia
6. Which of the following is a potential complication of haemodialysis?
a. Hypertension
b. Hypotension
c. Hyperglycaemia
d. Hypoglycemia
7. What is the primary purpose of a computerized physician order entry (CPOE) system within a HIS?
a. To manage patient appointments
b. To manage patient billing information
c. To manage patient medication orders
d. To manage patient insurance information
8. What is the primary purpose of a cardiac monitor?
a. To measure blood pressure
b. To measure oxygen saturation in the blood
c. To measure heart rate and rhythm
d. To measure respiratory rate
9. Which of the following is a potential benefit of implementing a HIS?
a. Improved patient outcomes
b. Increased hospital staff workload
c. Decreased patient satisfaction
d. Increased risk of medical errors
10. What is the primary purpose of an intensive care unit (ICU)?
a. To provide long-term care for patients with chronic illnesses
b. To provide emergency care for patients with life-threatening conditions
c. To provide basic medical care for patients with minor injuries
d. To provide specialized care for patients with critical illnesses or injuries
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AIIMS Nursing Previous Year Question Paper
11. What is the primary purpose of an endoscope?
a. To view the inside of the bladder
b. To view the inside of the lungs
c. To view the inside of the body cavity or organ
d. To view the inside of the heart
12. Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of implementing a HIS?
a. Increased efficiency in hospital processes
b. Increased accuracy of patient information
c. Increased risk of data breaches
d. Increased patient satisfaction
13. What is the primary purpose of a pulse oximeter?
a. To measure blood pressure
b. To measure oxygen saturation in the blood
c. To measure heart rate
d. To measure respiratory rate
14. Which of the following is a potential benefit of implementing a patient portal within a HIS?
a. Improved communication between patients and healthcare providers
b. Increased patient anonymity
c. Decreased patient access to healthcare information
d. Decreased patient involvement in healthcare decision-making
15. Which of the following is responsible for transmitting sound waves to the inner ear?
a. Cochlea
b. Eardrum
c. Auditory nerve
d. Ossicles
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16. Which part of the eye is responsible for controlling the amount of light that enters the eye?
a. Iris
b. Cornea
c. Retina
d. Optic nerve
17. Which of the following is a common symptom of allergic rhinitis?
a. Tinnitus
b. Vertigo
c. Sneezing
d. Hearing loss
18. Which part of the ear is responsible for maintaining balance?
a. Cochlea
b. Eardrum
c. Vestibule
d. Semicircular canals
19. What is the primary purpose of plasmapheresis?
a. To remove excess fluids from the body
b. To remove waste products from the blood
c. To remove antibodies or other harmful substances from the blood
d. To increase the production of red blood cells
20. What is the leading cause of chronic renal failure?
a. Obesity
b. Smoking
c. Hypertension
d. Diabetes
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21. Which of the following is not a common symptom of Dhat syndrome?
a. Fatigue and weakness
b. Loss of appetite
c. Erectile dysfunction
d. Excessive sweating
21. What is the name of first cervical vertebrae?
a. Thoracic vertebrae
b. Atlas
c. Lumbar vertebrae
d. Axix
22. What is nephrotosis?
a. A condition where the kidney is located in the wrong place
b. A condition where the kidney is missing
c. A condition where kidney is enlarged
d. A condition where the kidney drops down into the pelvis when a person stands up
23. What is renal failure?
a. it is the inability of the heart to filter waste products from the blood.
b. it is the inability of the lungs to filter waste products from the blood.
c. it is the inability of the liver to filter waste products from the blood.
d. it is the inability of the kidneys to filter waste products from the blood
24. What are the symptoms of uterine inertia?
a. slow or no progress in labor, weak or irregular contractions& prolonged labor
b. severe pain, heavy bleeding, and fever.
c. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
d. difficulty breathing, chest pain, and dizziness.
25. What is the name of the bone that forms the forehead?
a. Occipital bone
b. Temporal bone
c. Frontal bone
d. Parietal bone
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26. What are the symptoms of Sialoadenitis?
a. Headache
b. Pain and swelling in the affected salivary gland
c. Blurred vision
d. Loss of appetite
27. What is the name of the bone that forms the lower jaw?
a. Mandible
b. Maxilla
c. Zygomatic bone
d. Temporal bone
28. What are the common causes of Sialoadenitis?
a. Excessive alcohol consumption.
b. Smoking
c. Blockage of the salivary gland duct
d. Excessive sugar intake.
29. What is the name of the joint that connects the pelvis to the sacrum?
a. Ankle joint
b. Knee joint
c. Shoulder joint
d. Sacroiliac joint
30. What are the treatment options for dorsalgia?
a. Antibiotics
b. Physical therapy
c. Chiropractic adjustments
d. Arthroscopy Surgery
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31. What is the name of the bone that forms the back of the skull?
a. Frontal bone
b. Parietal bone
c. Occipital bone
d. Temporal bone
32. What is Sialoadenitis?
a. It is the inflammation of the liver
b. Sialoadenitis is the inflammation of a salivary gland
c. It is the inflammation of the pancreas.
d. It is the inflammation of the spleen.
33. What are the symptoms of dorsalgia?
a. Numbness in the back
b. Swelling in the back
c. Pain in the back
d. Headache
34. What are the two types of Lewy body dementia?
a. Dementia with Lewy bodies and Parkinson’s disease dementia.
b. Alzheimer’s disease and Huntington’s disease.
c. Multiple sclerosis and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
d. Depression and anxiety disorder.
35. What are the common causes of dorsalgia?
a. Obesity
b. Smoking
c. Poor posture
d. Excessive exercise
36. What is Lewy body dementia?
a. A progressive brain disorder that affects thinking, movement, & behavior.
b. A type of cancer.
c. A skin condition.
d. A respiratory disease.
37. What is dorsalgia?
a. Pain in the back
b. Pain in the hip
c. Pain in the legs
d. Pain in the arms
38. What is the Drawer test for knee?
a. A test used to diagnose injuries to the shoulder
b. A test used to diagnose injuries to the ACL and PCL of the knee.
c. A test used to diagnose injuries to the ankle.
d. A test used to diagnose injuries to the elbow.
39. What are the symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. Stiffness and limited range of motion in the wrist and fingers.
b. Numbness, tingling, and pain in the hand and fingers, especially at night
c. Weakness and loss of grip strength in the hand.
d. Swelling and redness in the hand and wrist.
40. What is the purpose of Durkan’s test?
a. To diagnose De Quervain’s tenosynovitis.
b. To diagnose trigger finger.
c. To diagnose tennis elbow
d. To diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome.
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41. Can women with Complete Uterus Didelphys have a normal pregnancy?
a. No, they cannot get pregnant.
b. Yes, but they are at a higher risk of miscarriage and preterm labor.
c. Yes, but they may require extra monitoring during pregnancy.
d. It depends on the severity of the condition.
42. What are the symptoms of Complete Uterus Didelphys?
a. Heavy menstrual bleeding.
b. Pain during intercourse.
c. Difficulty getting pregnant.
d. All of the above
43. What is Complete Uterus Didelphys?
a. A condition where a woman has three uteri.
b. A condition where a woman has no uterus.
c. A congenital abnormality where a woman has 2 separate uteri, its cervix & vagina
d. A condition where a woman has a single uterus with two cervixes.
44. What condition is associated with low levels of haptoglobin?
a. hypertension
b. hemolytic anemia
c. diabetes
d. cancer
45. What position is the patient in during the Trendelenburg test?
a. Standing on one leg
b. Lying on their back
c. Sitting upright
d. Kneeling on all fours
46. A positive coombs test result indicate?
a. The presence of antibodies on the surface of RBCs
b. The absence of antibodies on the surface of RBCs
c. The presence of hemoglobin in the urine
d. The presence of bacteria in the blood
47. Methods of determining fetal presentation & position include:
a. Cullen’s sign.
b. Leopold’s maneuver.
c. Mauriceau-Smelli-Veit maneuver.
d. Carful history taking.
48. What is the name of the muscle that is primarily assessed during the Trendelenburg test?
a. Biceps femoris
b. Rectus femoris
c. Gluteus medius
d. Sartorius
49. What is the function of haptoglobin?
a. To bind free hemoglobin and prevent kidney damage
b. To breakdown RBCs
c. To regulate BP
d. To transport oxygen in the blood
50. What organ produces haptoglobin?
a. kidneys
b. pancreas
c. Spleen
d. Liver
51. Which of the following statement best describes Dhat syndrome?
a. A psychological disorder with excessive preoccupation with one’s semen loss
b. A neurological disorder causing involuntary movements of the limbs
c. A respiratory disorder resulting in difficulty breathing
d. A gastrointestinal disorder causing chronic abdominal pain
