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Kerala PSC Previous Questions and Answers
Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Exam 2007 Solved Questions
1. ……..is the inflammation of the tongue:
A. Gingivitis
B. Gastritis
C. Glossitis
D. Parotitis
2. Heat regulating center is:
A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Basal nuclei
D. Central cortex
3. position used for giving enema:
A. Left lateral
B. Right lateral
C. Dorsal recumbent
D. Lithotomy
4. Strength of normal saline is:
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 0.45%
D. 0.9%
5. An agent that has the power to kill microorganisms:
A. Bacteriocide
B. Antiseptic
C. Bacteriostat
D. Disinfectant
6. 1 gm of fat give calories of heat:
A. 10
B. 4
C. 2
D. 9
7. Strength of savlon for disinfecting thermometer
is:
A. 1:30
B. 1:20
C. 1:40
D. 1:10
8. Reaction of normal urine is:
A. Addic
B. Slightly acidic
C. Neutral
D. Alkaline
9. Loss of appetite is termed as:
A. Dyspepsia
B. Dysphagia
C. Anorexia
D. Nausea
10. Amount of solution administered for evacuant enema for adults:
A. 250-500 ml
B. 500-1000ml
C. 1000-1500 ml
D. 1500-2000 ml
11. The temperature of the water used for tepid sponging is:
A. 65-85 °F
B. 85-100 °F
C. 100-105 °F
D. 105-110 °F
12. One pint is equal to:
A. 250 ml
B. 500 ml
C. 750 ml
D. 1000 ml
13. Size of needle for intramuscular injection:
A. 18-20 gauge
B. 21-23 gauge
C. 24-25 gauge
D. 26-27 gauge
14. Rate of oxygen administration through nasal catheter:
A. 0.5-1 liter
B. 1-2 liter
C. 2-4 liter
D. 4-6 liter
15. Instrument used to examine the rectum:
A. Autoscope
B. Proctoscope
C. Endoscope
D. Ophthalmoscope
16. Florence Nightingale was bom on:
A. January 12
B. April 12
C. March 5
D. May 12
17. Drugs used to induce vomiting is:
A. Emetic
B. Antiemetic
C. Pyretics
D. Antipyretics
18. Acetic acid is used for testing urine for:
A. Sugar
B. Acetate
C. Albumin
D. Bile salts
19. Enema given to destry or expel the worms from the intestine:
A. Astringent enema
B. Anthelmintic enema
C. Purgative enema
D. Carminative enema
20. Tte important person in the hospital:
A. Doctor
B. Nurse
C. Patient
D. Technician
21. Exanimation with the help of stethoscope is called:
A. Percussion
B. Palpation
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection
22. When pulse rate is less than 60 per minute it is called :
A. Bradycardia
B. Bradypnea
C. Tachycardia
D. Tachypnea
23. Lock jaw develops in:
A. Typhoid
B. Tetanus
C. Meningitis
D. Diphtheria
24. The process of incising the ear to promote drainage is called:
A. Trephining
B. Mobilization
C. Myringotomy
D. Fenestration
25. The most common complication during the first 24 hours following an amputation:
A. Infection
B. Flexion
C. Hemorrhage
D. Sloughing of the sutures
26. The doctor ordered for a 1,00,000 units of penicillin. If there is a vial containing 2,00,000 units diluted in 10 ml. How many ml be given to the patient?
A. 5 ml
B. 0.75 ml
C. 1.25 ml
D. 2.5 ml
27. Profuse menstrual flow during her period is called:
A. Metrorrhagia
B. Menorrhagia
C. Amenorrhea
D. Polymenorrhea
28. The most serious complication fracture is:
A. Infection
B. Fat embolism
C. Hemorrhage
D. Air embolism
29. Buck’s extension is a method of:
A. Skin traction
B. Skin grafting
C. Skeletal traction
D. Bom grafting
30. The incubation period of chickenpox is:
A. 12-21 days
B. 1-7 days
C. 5-10 days
D. 3 weeks-1 month
31. Schick test is used for the determination of person’s susceptibility to:
A. Scarlet fever
B. Tuberculosis
C. Diphtheria
D. Typhoid fever
32. Which of those effects is expected following the administration of a mydriatic medication?
A. Dilatation of the pupils
B. Improved power of accommodation
C. Inflammation of the nasolacrimal duct
D. Increased drainage of the aqueous humor
33. Common type of fracture in children:
A. Simple fracture
B. Collis fracture
C. Greenstick fracture
D. Complicated fracture
34. The most important point in nursing care of a patient after tracheostomy is:
A. Administration of antibiotics
B. Maintenance of intake output
C. Oxygen administration
D. Suctioning
35. Quickening takes place between:
A. 10th and 16th week
B. 16th and 20th week
C. 20th and 24th week
D. After 24th week
36. The diuretic phase begins in bums within:
A. 48-72 hours
B. 12-24 hours
C. 36-48 hours
D. 24-36 hours
37. The main side effect of streptomycin is:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Blood dyscrasias
C. Ototoxicity
D. Visual disturbance
38. Vector of malaria is:
A. Female culex mosquito
B. Female anopheles mosquito
C. Male culex mosquito
D. Male anopheles mosquito
39. Megaloblastic anemia is due to the deficiency of.
A. Iron
B. Thiamine
C. Acetic acid
D. Folic acid
40. The normal serum bilirubin is:
A. 0.1-1 mg/dl
B. 2-4 mg/di
C. 1.5-3.5 mg/dl
D. 10-12 mg/dl
41. The symptom of enlarged prostrate include.
A. Pyuria
B. Difficulty in micturition
C. Ototoxicity
D. Visual disturbance
42. A degenerative disease of the brain associated with liver failure:
A. Uremia
B. Diabetic coma
C. Septicemia
D. Hepatic coma
43. Severe pain occur in the right quadrant of the abdomen radiating the back right shoulder:
A. Renal colic
B. Internal colic
C. Biliary colic
D. Abdominal colic
44. To lower the acidity of gastric secretion give:
A. Gelusil
B. Belladona
C. Aspirin
D. Carminative mixture
45 Diabetes mellitus is usually recognized by:
A. Albuminuria
B. Lack of appetite
C. Glycosuria
D. Urea in the urine
46. Tuberculosis of the spine is also called:
A. Osteomalacia
B. Charcot’s disease
C. Erving’s disease
D. Pott’s disease
47. Nitroglycerine is given sublingually to relieve pain by vasodilatation of:
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Coronary artery
C. Aortic artery
D. Carotid artery
48. The cause of ascites in cirrhosis of the liver is:
A. General fluid imbalance
B. Portal obstruction
C. Kidney trouble
D. All the above
49. Dr Salk discovered a vaccine for the prevention
of:
A. Measles
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Smallpox
D. Tetanus
50. Pneumothorax is the condition in which there is:
A. Water in the visceral space
B. Air in the visceral space
C. Water in the pleural space
D. Air in the pleural space
51.The cause of anemia in renal failure is
A. Erythropoietin deficiency
B. Repeated hemodialysis
C. Excessive use of diuretics
D.Restriction of protein in the diet
52. Group ‘O’ patients can receive blood belonging to group:
A. O
B. B
C. A
D. AB
53. Xerophthalmia is due to deficiency of
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin A
54. Best therapeutic measure for empyema is:
A. Chest drainage
B. Postural drainage
C. Breathing exercise
D. Fowler’s position
55. Allergen causes:
A. Bronchitis
B. Asthma
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Pneumonia
56. Serum cholesterol level will be elevated in case of:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Cretinism
D. Diabetes
57. Normal bleeding time is:
A. 1-3 mts
B. 6-10 mts
C. 3-6 mts
D. 10-12 mts
58. Excessive salivation and drooling is seen in:
A. Esophageal atresia
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Omphalocele
D. Tracheoesophageal fistula
59.Koplik’s spot is seen is:
A. Chickenpox
B. Meales
C. Mumps
D. Smallpox
60. The bilirubin encephalopathy due to high concentration of indirect bilirubin on brain and basal ganglia in the neonatal period is:
A. Status epileptics
B. Kerning’s sign
C. Kernicterus
D. Jaundice
61. Diabetes insipidus is caused by:
A. Growth hormone
B. Insulin metabolism
C. Antidiuretic hormone
D. Carbohydrate metabolism
62. A congenital hemolytic disease caused by Rh incompatibility is:
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Erythroblastosis fetalis
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Jaundice
63. On an average, the normal infant triples theirbirth
weight when they reach the age approximately?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
64. A nurse is assisting with the care of a child receiving oxygen by cannula. In what way it may differ from the way it is normally administering an adult:
A. The oxygen need not be humidified before administering to a child
B. The cannula for a child has only one nasal prong
C. The amount of oxygen administered to a child should be less than the amount administered to an adult
D. The technique used for this therapy is same for an adult and child
65. The commonest type of jaundice in newborn:
A. Hemolytic
B. Physiological
C. Obstructive
D. Hepatogenic
66. The most common cause of heart disease in
adolescence or young adult is:
A. Rheumatic fever disease
B. Congenital heart
C. Anaemia
D. Melanization
67. Manifestation of anger in children:
A. Thumb sucking
B. Temper tantrum
C. Nightmare
D. Regression
68. Kwashiorkor is developed due to lack of:
A. Protein
B. Calories
C. Fat
D. Protein and calories
69. Accidents are the largest single cause of mortality and disability between the age of:
A. 1-4 years
B. 5-7 years
C. 9-10 years
D. 10 years onwards
70. One of the following drug is not an anticonvulsant:
A. Diazepam
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Carbamazepine
D. Pencillin
71. Increased concentration of oxygen in capillaries causing vasoconstriction dilated vision of eyes is seen in:
A. Conjunctitities
B. Cataract
C. Strabismus
D. Retrolental fibroplasia
72. Liver enzymes which converts lipid soluble bilirubin:
A. Low density lipoprotein
B. Acetyle choline
C. Glucoronyl transferase
D. High density lipoprotein
73. Expected weight of a child at one year whose birth weight was 3.5 kg would be:
A. 7.5 kg
B. 12.5 kg
C. 11.5 kg
D. 10.5 kg
74. The disease transferred through contact is called:
A. Communicable disease
B. Infectious disease
C. Epidemic disease
D. Contagious disease
75. The following are examples of live vaccine except;
A. Typhoid
B. Oral polio
C. BCG
D. Measles
76. A substance which suppress or neutralize bad odours is called:
A. Deodorant
B. Antiseptic
C. Disinfectant
D. Antibiotic
77. Poliomyelitis is:
A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Spirochetal infection
78. Rabies is a fatal viral disease of:
A. Cardiovascular system
B. Muscular system
C. Central nervous system
D. Skeletal system
79. A childhood psychiatric disorder characterised by abnormalities in communicable and social interaction and by restricted repeated activities and interests:
A. Phobia
B. Obsession
C. Autism
D. Illusion
80. Misperception of external stimuli is called.
A. Phobia
B. Hallucination
C. Addiction
D. Illusion
81. A syndrome in which the central features are overactivity mood change and self important ideas: .
A. Mania
B. Schizophn
C. Depression
D. Halluo
82. Voltage of current applied for ECT is-
A. 35-75 volts
B. 75-IOO vote
C. 75-120 volts
100-150 vdb
83. An artificially induced stage in which the person is relaxed and unusually unconscious:
A. Phobia
B. Play therapy
C. Epilepsy
D. Hypnosis
84. Senile dementia occurs during:
A. childhood
B. Teenage
C. Adult
D. Old age
85. The ability to enter into the life of another person to accuratcly perceive his current feeling and to communicate this feeling to the patient is:
A. Sympathy
B. Empathy
C. Self disclosure
D. Role playing
86. Weight of uterus is:
A. 30 gn1
B. 60 gm
C. 90 gm
D. 120 gm
87. The volume of amniotic fluid at term:
A. 500 ml
B. 750 ml
C. 1000 ml
D. 1250 ml
88. Tobacco is not only is cigarettes but is chewed by many people. Which poisons alkaloid is present in tobacco?
A. Lead
B. Nicotine
C. Alcohol
D. Caffeine
89. After blood circulation stops, how long does the brain function?
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 8 minutes
D. 10 minutes
90. At what age does our brain stop further growth?
A. After 5 years
B. After 10 years
C. After 15 years
D. After 20 years
91. How many bones are present in the entire framework of the human skeleton?
A. 106
B. 206
C. 306
D. 406
92. How many chromosomes are found in a cell of human being?
A. 23
B. 28
C. 46
D. 48
93. Which part of the heart is responsible for circulating blood through the lungs?
A. Left ventricle
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Right atrium
94. When the lens of the eyes become cloudy and opaque, the condition is known as:
A. Glaucoma
B. Long sightedness
C. Cataract
D. Short sightedness
95. Which refers to the treatment of mental disease with the help of electric shock?
A. Electroconvulsive therapy
B. Electroencephalography
C. Electrocardiography
D. Electric wave
96. Which term is applied for the sensation of noise as roaring or ringing in the ears?
A. Tinnitus
B. Tatanus
C. Murmur
D. Peristalsis
97. Paralysis of the lower half of the torso and of both legs:
A. Quadriplegia
B. Hemiplegia
C. Paraplegia
D. Paralysis of lower extremity
98. Which test is used to detect typhoid?
A. Widal test
B. Millard’s test
C. Kahn test
D. Rorschach test
99. Obstruction of the artery or vein by a clot of blood:
A. Thrombosis
B. Embolism
C. Thrombophlebitis
D. Phlebitis
100. What should be the duration of full term pregnancy?
A. 250 days
B. 280 days
C. 300 days
D. 310 days
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