Important Nursing Quiz Questions Part – 5

1. Which of the following clinical indicator leads the nurse to suspect a client has hypokalemia?

A). Edema.

B). Muscle spasms.

C). Kussmaul respiration.

D). Abdominal distention.

2. The nurse observes an an anxious client hyperventilating and intervenes to prevent?

A). Cardiac arrest.

B). Carbonic acid deficit.

C). Reduction in serum pH.

D). Excess oxygen saturation.

3. What is the primary purpose of administering I.V potassium chloride infusion to a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?

A). Treatment of hyperpnea.

B). Prevention of flaccid paralysis.

C). Replacement of excessive loss.

D). Treatment of cardiac dysrythmias.

4. What is the recommended rate of administration of I.V albumin to get optimum therapeutics effect?

A). Rapid administration.

B). Slow administration with plenty of oral fluids.

C). Should not exceed 5 to 10 ml / minute.

D). Administer within 30 minutes.

5. Which of the following treatment will start immediately to the client with hypothermia?

A). Core rewarming with warm fluids.

B). Ambulation to increase metabolism.

C). Frequent oral temperature assessment.

D). Gastric tube feeding.

6. To achieve maximum effectiveness, how long should the nurse leave the rectal tube in place once it is inserted?

A). 15 minutes.

B). 30 minutes.

C). 45 minutes.

D). 60 minutes.

7. What is the priority nursing intervention for a client during the immediate post operative period?

A). Observe bleeding.

B). Maintain patent airway.

C). Record intake and output.

D). Checking vital signs every 15 minutes.

8. In which of the following response to a drug is directly opposite the desired therapeutic response?

A). Allergic response.

B). Synergistic response.

C). Paradoxical response.

D). Hypersusceptibility response.

9. What is the priority concern if a client develops a temperature of 102° F after an open heart surgery?

A). Increase the cardiac output.

B). Cerebral edema.

C). Diaphoresis.

D). A forerunner of haemorrhage.

10. What is the main reason for testes are suspended in scrotum?

A). Protect the sperm from acidic urine.

B). Easy passage of sperm through urethra.

C). Protect the sperm from high abdominal temperature.

D). Facilitate embryonic maturation of sperm.

11. Which of the following is known as condylomata acuminata?

A). Scabies.

B). Herpes zoster.

C). Venereal warts.

D). Cancer of epididymis.

12. Which of the following principle is associated with the reabsorption of water from the glomerular filtrate in the kidney tubules?

A). Osmosis.

B). Diffusion.

C). Active dialysis.

D). Active transport.

13. Why do the female has a higher risk for developing cystitis than a male?

A). Altered urinary pH.

B). Hormonal secretion.

C). Juxtaposition of the bladder.

D). Proximity of urethra to the anus.

14. Which among the clinical indicator of end stage renal disease should the nurse expect?

A). Polyuria.

B). Jaundice.

C). Azotemia.

D). Hypotension.

15. For what should the nurse monitor when caring for a client who has hematuria?

A). Intractable diarrhea.

B). Acetone in the urine.

C). Symptoms of peritonitis.

D). Gross blood in the urine.

16. Which of the following condition commonly cause acute salpingitis?

A). Syphilis.

B). Abortion.

C). Gonorrhea.

D). Hydatidiform mole.

17. In which stage of syphilis is considered as non contagious?

A). Primary stage.

B). Tertiary stage.

C). Incubation stage.

D). Secondary stage.

18. In which of the following condition the drug metoprolol is contraindicated?

A). Hypertension.

B). Angina pectoris.

C). Sinus bradycardia.

D). Myocardial infarction.

19. The patient withhold the regular dose of digoxin intake, if client experiences?

A). Singultus.

B). Chest pain.

C). Blurred vision.

D). Increased urine output.

20. Tensilon is used for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis because it will cause increase in?

A). Symptoms.

B). Consciousness.

C). Blood pressure.

D). Muscle strength.

21. Asymmetry of gluteal folds are seen in ?

A). Osteomyelitis.

B). Osteoporosis.

C). Hip displacement.

D). Muscle atrophy.

22. Spalding sign is seen in?

A). Abortion.

B). I.U.D.

C). Baby with carinostenosis.

D). Spina bifida.

23. How much minimum gap needed between two doses of live vaccines?

A). 4 weeks.

B). 8 weeks.

C). 1 week.

D). Anytime.

24. Tetracycline is used for the prophylaxis of?

A). Leptospirosis.

B). Cholera.

C). Meningitis.

D). Brucellosis

25. Which of the following vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

A). Rubella.

B). OPV.

C). Hepatitis.

D). BCG.

26. Which of the following blood protien associated with the immune system?

A). Albumin.

B). Globulin.

C). Thrombin.

D). Hemoglobin.

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