Table of Contents
HPSSC Recruitment Staff Nurse Exam Previous Question Paper
Here solved nursing questions only included, arithmetic reasoning and English Language questions will discuss in the next set of questions.
1. The most common pathogenic mechanism of acute pancreatitis is –
a. Peritonitis
b. Duodenal ulcer
c. Peptic ulcer
d. Auto digestion of the pancreas
2. What does the nurse monitors for, in a patient with Acute Renal Failure?
a. Reduce fat intake
b. Provide supine position
c. Pulmonary edema and ECG changes
d. Urinary tract infection
3. A disease caused by Treponema pallidum is –
a. Gonorrhea
b. Syphilis
c. Conjunctivitis
d. Cervicitis
4. Which of the following is an important nursing intervention for a patient with Cushing Syndrome?
a. Left Middle Cerebral Artery
b. Observe for hypotension
c. Protect from infection
d. Restrict carbohydrate intake.
5. Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia?
a. Left Middle Cerebral Artery
b. Vertebral Artery
c. Brain stem
d. Right Middle Cerebral Artery.
6. Which one of the following is a common response expected in a patient with stroke, to the change in body image?
a. Denial
b. Dis association
c. Delusion
d. Depression.
7. A patient with early osteoporosis must be advised to-
a. Stop smoking
b. Avoid exercise
c. Bed rest
d. Increase green leafy vegetables
8. For doing nasotracheal suctioning, during which of the following patient activities, the catheter should be inserted?
a. Swallowing
b. Inhaling
c. Exhaling
d. Retching
9. The simple most effective method for reducing the risks of stasis of pulmonary secretions is-
a. Two hourly position change
b. Immobilization on bed
c. Closed suctioning
d. Use of HME filter
10. What is cyanosis?
a. Decreased oxygen in lungs
b. Blue discoloration of skin
c. Red discoloration of skin
d. Excessive loss of hair
11. The period from conception to birth is denoted as –
a. Postnatal
b. Intranatal
c. Prenatal
d. Postpartum
12. Role of nursing is “having charge of somebody’s health” Whose vision is this?
a. Virginia Henderson
b. Dorothea Orem
c. William Blake
d. Florence Nightingale
13. Which of the following developmental stage corresponds to infancy?
a. Trust Vs Mistrust
b. Autonomy Vs Shame
c. Initiative Vs Guilt
d. Industry Vs Inferiority.
14. Who proposed the nursing theory of self-care deficit?
a. Virginia Henderson
b. Dorothea Orem
c. William Blake
d. Florence Nightingale
15. The head circumference of a normal infant is –
a. 30 – 32 cm
b. 32 – 34 cm
c. 33 – 35 cm
d. 35 – 37 cm
16. The leading cause of death in adolescence is –
a. Accidents
b. Suicides
c. Drug abuse
d. Cancer
17. The legal definition of ‘death’ that facilitates organ donation is, cessation of –
a. Function of heart
b. Function of brain
c. Function of liver
d. Function of lungs
18. The body temperature at which tissues and cells can best function is –
a. 30 – 32 Degree C
b. 36 – 38 Degree C
c. 25 – 27 Degree C
d. 18 – 20 Degree C
19. Men have a higher Basal Metabolic Rate because, their body contains more-
a. Thyroxine
b. Adrenaline
c. Prolactin
d. Testosterone
20. The mechanism by which body loses heat to the environment, without having direct contact is –?
a. Conduction
b. Conversion
c. Radiation
d. Evaporation
21. Which of the following structures controls heat loss?
a. Anterior pituitary
b. Posterior pituitary
c. Posterior hypothalamus
d. Anterior hypothalamus
22. Exposure of the body to subnormal temperature can lead to …
a. Hypoxia
b. Freezing
c. Bradycardia
d. Frost-bite
23. What is the effect of an antipyretic?
a. Reduce pain
b. Reduce fever
c. Reduce headache
d. Reduce infection
24. The volume of blood pumped by the heart during one minute is called….
a. Stroke volume
b. Cardiac output
c. Afterload
d. Preload
25. What is the normal pulse rate of an infant?
a. 80 – 100
b. 100 – 120
c. 140 – 180
d. 120 – 160
HPSSC Recruitment Staff Nurse Exam Previous Question Paper- Solved Nursing Questions
26. The phase of respiration in which gases move in and out of the lungs is ….
a. Ventilation
b. Inhalation
c. Internal respiration
d. Gas exchange
27. What is the normal partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood? (mm Hg)
a. 20 – 30
b. 20 – 40
c. 35 – 45
d. 45 – 55
28. What is the equipment that indirectly measures arterial oxygen saturation?
a. Cardiac monitor
b. Pulse oximeter
c. Venous Doppler
d. Arterial Doppler
29. What is the term used to denote regular, abnormally slow respirations?
a. Bradypnea
b. Hypoxia
c. Hypoxemia
d. Eupnea
30. What technique of assessment helps to determine ketoacidosis?
a. Tasting
b. Olfaction
c. Froth test
d. Urinalysis
31. Inflammation of skin at base of nail is?
a. Stomatitis
b. Paronychia
c. Papule
d. Macule
32. The condition in which both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously is known as?
a. Strabismus
b. Glaucoma
c. Cataract
d. Astigmatism
33. The most effective way to break the chain of infection is by?
a. Use of antibiotics
b. Vaccination
c. Use of gloves
d. Hand hygiene
34. How many drops in a standard drip set makes one ml.?
a. 4
b. 15
c. 30
d. 60
35. The prescription orders 0.125 mg digoxin orally. Tablets containing 0.25 mg is available. How many tablets will you administer?
a. 2
b. ½
c. ¼
d. 4
36. A patient who is receiving intravenous fluids develops tenderness, warmth, erythema and pain at the infusion site. Which of the following conditions will you suspect?
a. Sepsis
b. Infiltration
c. Fluid overload
d. Phlebitis
37. When providing oral hygiene to an unconscious patient, care must be taken to prevent?
a. Pain
b. Dental carries
c. Aspiration
d. Scaring
38. What is the intrinsic rate of the normal A-V node?
a. 80 – 100
b. 100 – 120
c. 20 – 40
d. 40 – 60
39. Which of the following structures is the pacemaker of the heart?
a. S-A node
b. Septum
c. A-V node
d. Bundle of His
40. The prescription is for two tablespoons of milk of magnesia. How many ml. will you give?
a. 10 ml
b. 20 ml
c. 30 ml
d. 60 ml
41. Which of the following is intravascular fluid?
a. Lymph
b. Pleural fluid
c. Plasma
d. Synovial fluid
42. If the serum potassium level is less than normal, the condition is known as –
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hyponatremia
d. Hypernatremia
43. What electrolyte abnormality is likely to develop in a patient with vomiting?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hyponatremia
d. Hypernatremia
44. How much sodium is normally present in the extra cellular fluid? (in MEq/L).
a. 3.5 – 4.5
b. 35 – 45
c. 135 – 145
d. 95 – 105
45. What is the primary cause of hyperkalemia?
a. Cardiac failure
b. Renal failure
c. Diarrhea
d. Vomiting
46. Which of the following is an isotonic solution?
a. Lactated Ringers
b. Half –Normal Saline
c. One-Third Normal Saline
d. Mannitol
47. Thousand ml. of Normal Saline is to be infused in 8 hours. What should be the rate of flow per minute?
a. 30
b. 50
c. 100
d. 120
48. A patient admitted with vomiting, has the following arterial blood gas levels-pH 7.30; PaCO2 36 mm Hg; Pa O2 92mm Hg; and HCO3 18; what is the acid-base imbalance that is present?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
49. Which of the following is a first-line drug used for pain management?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Clonidine
c. Morphine
d. Ketamine
50. Which of the following is the organism that causes peptic ulcer disease?
a. Staphylococcus
b. Coryne bacterium
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Streptococcus.
HPSSC Recruitment Staff Nurse Exam Previous Question Paper- Solved Nursing Questions
51. Which of the following nutrients helps for tissue repair?
a.Vitamin
b. Fat
c. Carbohydrate
d. Protein
52. Microscopic examination of urine reveals elevated levels of red blood cells. What does it indicate?
a. Urinary tract infection
b. Bladder injury
c. Hemorrhage
d. Damage to Glomeruli
53. Which of the following patient activities helps to relax the external anal sphincter, while administering enema?
a.Separating the buttocks
b. Lubricating the catheter tip
c.Inserting the catheter slowly
d. Breathing out through the mouth.
54. What length of the catheter tip should be inserted into the rectum, for giving enema to an adult patient?
a.1.5 – 3 cm
b.7.5 – 10 cm
c.7.5 – 10 inches
d.5 – 7.5 inches
55. The stool discharged from an ostomy is called?
a. Effluent
b. Sullage
c. Puss
d. Drainage
56. Which of the following is the best method to confirm placement of the nasogastric tube:
a. Checking patient’s ability to talk
b. Aspiration of intestinal content
c. Introducing air and auscultating
d. X-ray of chest and abdomen
57. Which of the following is a common cause of orthostatic hypotension in a bedridden Patient?
a.Increased autonomic response
b. Decreased circulating blood volume
c. Increased cardiac output
d. Decreased blood pooling
58. Which of the following body parts has a condyloid joint?
a. Shoulder
b. Elbow
c. Wrist
d. Forearm
59. Who was the first president of the International Council of Nurses?
a. Annette Kennedy
b. Fenwick
c. Pamela Cipriano
d. Dr. Dilip
60. Which of the following minerals should be taken by a child suffering from rickets?
a.Potassium
b. Calcium
c. Sodium
d. Iron
61. Who introduced antiseptic spray during surgery?
a. Chanakya
b. Shushrutha
c. Joseph Lister
d. Edward Jenner
62. A large infection made up of several boils is known as:
a. Pustule
b. Carbuncle
c. Macule
d. Gangrene
63. Which of the following drugs will be administered to treat anaphylaxis?
a. Atropine
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Digoxin
d. Epinephrine
64. Which of the following is a vesicant drug?
a.Dactinomycin
b. Morphine
c. Azithrocin
d. Voveran
65. Pain caused by damage to somatic tissue is known as –
a. Injury
b. Plexus injury
c. Cord injury
d. Nociceptive
66. Which of the following immunoglobulin are responsible for anaphylactic reactions?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgM
d. IgG
67. The separation and disruption of previously joined wound edges is termed as?
a. Herniation
b. Dehiscence
c. Surgical failure
d. Wound infection
68. What types of dressing is Duoderm?
a. Colloidal
b. Hydrocolloid
c. Plastering
d. Implantaion
69. The role of the complement system in opsonization affects which response of the inflammatory process?
a. Cellular
b. Molecular
c. Tissue
d. Complement fixation
70. Contractures frequently occur after burn healing because of …?
a. Decreased protein intake
b. Wound infection
c. Excess fibrous tissue formation
d. Damage to the nerve cells
71. Association between HLA antigens and diseases is most commonly found in what disease conditions?
a. Neural tube infections
b. Down syndrome
c. Hemophelia
d. Autoimmune diseases
72. What is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiency’s?
a. Drugs
b. HIV infection
c. Inborn error
d. Anaphylaxis
73. If a person is having an acute rejection of a transplanted organ, which of the following drugs would most likely to be used?
a.Tacrolimus
b. Cyclosporine
c. Cellcept
d. Daclizumab.
74. The primary difference between benign and malignant neoplasm is the ….
a. Characteristic of tissue invasiveness
b. Type of tissue affected
c. Immunity of the person
d. Heredity
75. If the blood plasma has a higher osmolality than the fluid within a red blood cell, the mechanism involved in equalizing the fluid concentration is?
a. Diffusion
b. Active transport
c. Osmosis
d. None of these
HPSSC Recruitment Staff Nurse Exam Previous Question Paper- Solved Nursing Questions
76. Which of the following symptoms should be watched for in a patient receiving a loop diuretic?
a.Restlessness and agitation
b. Paresthesias.
c.Increased blood pressure
d.Weak irregular pulse.
77. Which of the following should be watched for in a patient who has just undergone a total thyroidectomy?
a.Weight gain
b. Depressed reflexes
c. Positive chvostek sign
d. Personality changes.
78. Which of the following surgical procedures involves removal of a body organ?
a. Tracheostomy
b. Laparotomy
c. Mammoplasty
d. Mastectomy.
79. The cause of arcus senilis is?
a. Increased urea
b. Increased uric acid in blood
c. Cholesterol deposits
d. Lack of Vitamin B6
80. What is the cause of presbyopia?
a. Increased IOP
b. Weakness of eye muscle
c. Vitamin A deficiency
d. Inflexible lens
81. The most appropriate technique to assess skin for temperature and moisture is ….
a. Auscultation
b. Palpation
c. Inspection
d. Percussion
82. Complete absence of melanin pigment in patchy areas on a patient’s hand is described
as ….
a. Albinism
b. Vitiligo
c. Greying
d. Melanism
83. What instruction will you give to a patient after a chemical peel?
a. Avoid sun exposure
b. Avoid contact with acids
c. Avoid use of alkali
d. Avoid oily skin
84. Childhood atopic dermatitis is commonly seen in which body area?
a. Chest
b. Face
c. Leg
d. Antecubital space
85. Which of the following parameters is commonly used to assess adequacy of fluid replacement in a patient with burns?
a. Type of burn injury
b. Area of injury
c. Urine output
d. Age of injured person
86. Which of the following is an earliest manifestation of inadequate oxygenation?
a. Diaphoresis
b. Cyanosis
c. Restlessness
d. Hypotension
87. A diagnostic procedure which involves removal of pleural fluid for analysis is:
a. Plasmapheresis
b. Paracentesis
c. ICD
d. Thoracentesis
88. Which of the following helps to identify flail chest in a patient with chest trauma:
a.Multiple rib fractures seen in X-ray.
b.Decreased movement of chest wall
c.Tracheal deviation
d. Paradoxic chest movement during respiration.
89. Which of the following is an intervention for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
a. Pursed-lip breathing
b. Chronic steroid therapy
c. High flow oxygen
d. High Carbohydrate diet
90. Which of the following is a normal finding obtained during a lymph node palpation?
a. Hard, fixed node
b. Firm, mobile node
c. Enlarged tender nodes
d. Hard, nontender nodes
HPSSC Recruitment Staff Nurse Exam Previous Question Paper- Solved Nursing Questions
91. Which is the most common type of leukemia seen in older adults?
a. Acute myeloplastic leukemia
b. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
c. Chronic lymphocytic
d. Chronic Myeloplastic
92. The blood vessel that brings blood to the right atrium is ….
a. Superior venacava
b. Inferior Venae cavae
c. Aorta
d. Pulmonary artery
93. Which of the following conditions is caused by elevated intra ocular pressure?
a.Glaucoma
b. Cataract
c. Strabismus
d. Myopia.
94. Which of the following is the most common pathologic finding in individuals at risk for sudden cardiac death?
a.Aortic valve disease
b. Mitral valve disease
c. Left ventricular dysfunction
d. Atherosclerotic heart disease
95. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for the use of fibrinolytic therapy?
a. Current use of anticoagulants
b. Severe liver disease
c. Suspected aortic dissection
d. Active peptic ulcer disease
96. Which of the following drugs provide relief of anxiety and decreases both preload and after load?
a. Amrinone
b. Morphine sulphate
c. Furosemide
d. Dobutamine
97. In a normal sinus rhythm, the measurement of an S.T.segment is …..?
a. 1.2 seconds
b. 12 seconds
c. 0.12 seconds
d. 0.6 seconds
98. The ECG monitor of a patient admitted with myocardial infarction shows ventricular bigeminy. What is the nurse’s responsibility in this situation?
a. Start CPR
b. Give shock
c. Repeat ECG after 1 hour
d. Assess the patient’s response
99. What is the usual treatment of Raynaud’s Phenomenon?
a. Calcium channel blockers
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Thrombolytic therapy
d. Antibiotics
100. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of diarrhea with dehydration. What could be the cause of increased peristalsis resulting in diarrhea?
a. Sympathetic stimulation
b. Autonomic dysreflexia
c. Parasympathetic stimulation
d. Hyperexitability of gastric nerve
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers
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